Why did flashback Sméagol have the same voice as present day Gollum?


Would it have better illustrated his descent into madness, and been better storytelling, by him having a normal human/hobbit voice in the flashback?

https://www.reddit.com/r/movies/comments/l74bwx/in_the_lord_of_the_rings_the_return_of_the_king/

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Ha ha, for sure! That always takes me out of the movie a bit.
Anyone know if it was written in the book that way? I get that it may not have been mentioned though. I'll get around to reading the book one day but haven't gotten around to it yet.

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haha yeah i laughed thinking, poor guy was always fucked

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He went from looking like Ozzy to a very old Peter Lorre

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Perhaps the flashback is supposed to be more of a “dream” with the events being depicted as a condensed version of how they actually occurred and how Gollum sees his past self in his own mind.

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Immediately thought that in yesterday’s rewatch, why on earth did Sméagol sound like Gollum five hundred years before the War of the Ring….

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The scene wasn't very long. But it was supposed to portray that Smeagol was weak of character. Hence the little, passive aggressive voice.

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The voice is the only way we know it's Gollum. Otherwise no one would have a clue. It's just a way to show he's the same person as Gollum...

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