A provocative and cinematic question about the much-discussed train scene in this movie.
EVEN IF it wasn't err "female on male sexual assault" in any way, or the r word at all, and even IF it "was", may I ask, do you think...
The director of this movie, no doubt the far from unknown Lars Von Trier, and here comes the provocative part, has INTENTIONALLY filmed that scene in that way in order to deliberately shock and provoke the audience albeit in perhaps a slightly less than usual way?
People online including elsewhere have seriously de-facto debated, and no offense to anyone, much less real life people who experienced related matters, that the filmmakers may simply NOT have been aware that it was it. But then knowing that they are all intelligent adults, with Mr on Trier also being an acclaimed filmmaker, could this be not the case at all? And that they actually set it up like that deliberately. But was it to shock the audience?
Granted, Mr Von Trier is indeed no stranger to shock value in cinema. Heck, his Antichrist (2009) film, which was even a partial inspiration to this two-part movie and of course also starred Charlotte Gainsbourg, was filled with some really gross and over the top shock value in the form of torture, bloody violence, sexual violence also and other matters. And some of his other work be it Breaking the Waves (1996) and "The Idiots" (1998) show that he is not afraid to take risks, whether its explicit sex or certain difficult topics.
So with that in mind, was the train scene meant to be in a way an attempt to provoke the audience in that sense? Including also the fact that apparently a 17 year old female has managed to, or did she, take a fully grown man sexually when he didn't exactly want it, even if it wasn't violently forced or anything but he was clearly shown saying "please don't do it" and she jumped on him still. Was it done for shock value?
And the fact that even HERE audiences have been seriously debating it and whatnot, does it prove he has succeeded, thanks.
P.S. Many audiences actually WERE divided on this scene. Some say yeah it was "it" others didn't think so, and even made fun of others who thought that way. But what is the RIGHT position here, if at all? And again, for what purpose was it filmed in the way it was? Does the deed make Joe in any way a "bad person" or just a flawed character who made a mistake perhaps, and did the man really not want it and only reluctantly agreed because he was somehow not given a choice, or did he not mind it but his ultimate decision was simply NOT SPELLED OUT clearly on screen? Cheers.