Slightly confused... Questions...


So I absolutely loved this movie (and the book) but there were parts of the movie I didn't quite understand if someone could help explain them to me...

1) In the beginning, Darcy asked the physician how he knew his rib wound wasn't a bite mark, to which the physician said he had been doing this for a long time. Then Darcy said there was no wound. (??)
2) Why did Darcy go for a swim after fighting with Elizabeth? Was this meant to be sexual somehow, or...?
3) Why did Darcy and Bingley set their watches together? I assumed at first it was maybe a countdown till sunrise and the subsequent explosion of the bridge, but then Darcy's watch went off while he was in the cell with Lydia. This couldn't have been dawn because it was still dark when they went outside.
4) What happened when Wickham tried to shoot Darcy (right after #3)? Did it hit the metal frame of the cell? I was just confused because it seemed like a direct shot but Darcy wasn't hit.
5) I was particularly confused about the geography of the movie, and maybe that's just a result of me not knowing the geography of England. So, the great wall was around the city of London, correct? And the moat around the remainder of England, encompassing the "in-between"? So was the bridge from England to another country? Where did the girls live? Where was the battle at the end? And what side of the bridge were the zombies on after the explosion? What side the heroes? I realize my confusion likely draws from my own stupidity and not remembering correctly from the movie, but any enlightenment would be appreciated.

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1) The doctor was gay for Darcy. So he wasn't really looking where he was supposed to be looking.
4) If you notice right before the guy pulls the trigger, Darcy walks in front of the part of the cell where there is more framework, so that would give the bullet a greater chance of hitting a piece of metal instead of going right through the empty space between the bars. And that's exactly what happened, it bounced off the fancy framework, saving his life.

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I was confused after Elisabeth confronted Darcy on why he broke up the relationship between Jane and Bingley.She declined his first marriage proposal.Later Darcy wrote her a letter explaining that Bingley was killed by zombies and that he lied about it to spare Jane the pain. (I could have simply misunderstood what I saw.That and the fact that the film's characters spoke Victorian English so I couldn't follow the dialogue.)
I presume the Zombies replaced something that was in the original novel.Not having read the original Jane Austen novel can someone explain what was changed? Thanks in advance.

That's just my two cents.

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He never says Bingley was killed by Zombies.

In the movie he says Bingley's feelings for Jane were beyond anything he ever witnessed in him and after overhearing Mrs. Bennet coldly stating her intention of having all her daughters marry favorably he persuaded Bingley of the unfitness of the match. Then he goes on to talk about Wickham and he tells her that his father (Darcy's father) was mysteriously bitten by a zombie after leaving Wickham a large sum of money in his will.

In the book (Pride Prejudice and Zombies)He tells her he thought Jane had been infected.

In the original Pride and Prejudice Darcy tells her he observed Jane at the ball and believed her to be indifferent to Bingley. Also, he thought it would be a most unfortunate connection for his friend because of the "total want of propriety so frequently, so almost uniformly betrayed" by her mother, three younger sisters, and occasionally even by her father (Her mother's connections in trade were also an objection but that wasn't so "great an evil" for Bingley as for Darcy).

BTW: It's the Regency period, not the Victorian. And, If you ever decide to read the original P&P you're in for a real treat! The writing style might take some getting use to but I found Austen much easier to read than many classics and she's very funny!

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Thanks for your explaination.As I mentioned in my initial post,I presumed the zombie invasion in the film was a metaphor of some conflict from the original Jane Austin novel.What was the zombie invasion a metaphor for?

That's just my two cents.

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There is no deep meaning in this particular book/movie. The zombies are there just to be silly.

And it's AustEn, not AustIn.

http://currentscene.wordpress.com

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You were right. The zombies represented the class divides of the Regency period.

http://www.indiewire.com/2016/02/pride-and-prejudice-and-zombies-director-on-staying-true-to-jane-austen-even-during-the-zombie-apocalypse-175067/

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Thanks. I hope they make more.
That's just my two cents.

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Yeah, I love this movie and you're welcome!

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