MovieChat Forums > The Man Who Knew Too Much (1935) Discussion > Why Would Hitchcock Remake This?

Why Would Hitchcock Remake This?


I heard the remake of The Man Who Knew To Much (TMWKTM) was better than the orginal, so during my journey of watching all the Hitchcock films in a somewhat chronological order, I contemplated for a while if I should in some ways ruin the remake by watching the inferior orginal first. I decided to watch the orginal first with the fear that I'd never want to watch it after seeing the remake. Expecting a poor movie in need of a remake, I found myself blown away.

1. The scene in the beginning, where the couples are dancing and a muffled gunshot goes off and the man who gets shot doesen't realize what happened until he see's the blood. The was amazing! It was so well executed that I got shivers. The music, acting, and directing all just blended so well together that it is quite simple unforgettable. One of my favourite cinema moments.

2. The child actor was actually good! I usually hate casting for the young ones in films but I felt the little lady in this one actually added something to the movie.

3. The dentist scene and the hypnotist scene were great.

4. The Albert Hall scene was just beautiful. Again one of my favourite cinema moments. A must see sequence.

All together this film just worked and has jumped to be one of my favourite films of the 1930s. After watching it I just coulden't understand why Hitchcock would find a need to remake this film of his thats already so good. I'll admit, I still haven't seen the remake. But in my shoes, as of now, TMWKTM is in no more need of a remake then Sabotage, Secret Agent, or Lady Vanishes (Flightplan was meh). So what was Hitchockc reasoning behind it? Did he just want to Americanize it? Because I thought it was already very American in many aspects. Do you think the remake was worth the effort?

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I saw the original and was surprised, too, because I had not previously known there was an original. I thought the Jimmy Steward-Doris Day 1966 version was the original. And I agree the 1934 version was a much better one. It makes the Stewart/Day version look very Hollywood-ized by comparison, and the 1934 version more authentic. So I found this question intriguing, and I think the answer is in the historical eras in which they take place. In the 1934 version, Europe was on the brink of war and Germany had just been taken over by the Nazis. So war with Germany was uppermost in everyone's mind and it was the theme of many of Hitchcock's Gaumont era films, including the 39 Steps.

What's most telling about the reasons is what they changed in the plot, that gives us clues. THe 1934 version takes us on holiday in St. Moritz at the beginning. This is in the Swiss Alps and the local villiams look suspciously like Austrian Nazis. In the 1966 version they are vacationing in French Morocco.

Why the change? In my view the update was relocated from Nazi Europe to Africa because of the shift from Germany as an enemy to the USSR at the end of WWII. In 1934, England was mobilizing itself for a fight aginst Naziism. Overnight, weirdly, the German Nazis were our friends. They were working in our government. We were not supposed to be reminded of the unseemly events of WWII and the German people. I think the media was trying to get everyone to forget the Nazis in 1966, stop embarassing them and clean up their reputations, which actually turned out to be a serious historical mistake.

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First of all:
The first time, I just figured it was typo. But since the same mistake occurs three different times and is never listed correctly, I have to point it out.
It was 1956, not 1966. There were very significant differences between the mid-50s and the mid-60s.

Yes, the Soviets were the primary / obvious threats in the mid-50s Cold War era. However, that doesn't require moving the action out of Europe. Also, people weren't shy about using Nazis as villains after the war. However, they were more limited to relatively independent plots; they didn't have a nation's resources behind them like the Red Menace did.

So why the shift to Morocco?

I can only speculate, but ....

Instead of thinking of the two versions in terms of 1934 and 1956, try thinking in terms of British and American. For the British version, a continental resort town like St. Moritz is just an average, typical "holiday" for a fairly well to do family like the Lawrences, but it does get them into an international environment. For an American family in the 1950s, all of the equivalent "typical vacations" would still just be within the US. To get the international flavor, it needed to be something bigger (relative to the family vacation). Once you get to the bigger trip idea, why not make it as "foreign" and exotic at possible? By the 1950s, Hitch could get the budget to do much more exotic things than he could in 1934. The shift to a more exotic culture also has the benefit of putting the parents in a more off balance position and keep them more isolated from trusted aid once things start to go wrong.


As to the original question of "Why remake it?"
From what I've read / heard in commentary tracks / etc., I think that at the time Hitch was on the hook for one picture on a multi-picture contract that he wanted to be done with. So going back and redoing something that he had already thought through once probably looked like a bit of a shortcut to fulfill that obligation.

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THe 1934 version takes us on holiday in St. Moritz at the beginning. This is in the Swiss Alps and the local villiams look suspciously like Austrian Nazis. In the 1966 version they are vacationing in French Morocco.

Why the change? In my view the update was relocated from Nazi Europe to Africa because of the shift from Germany as an enemy to the USSR at the end of WWII. In 1934, England was mobilizing itself for a fight aginst Naziism. Overnight, weirdly, the German Nazis were our friends. They were working in our government. We were not supposed to be reminded of the unseemly events of WWII and the German people. I think the media was trying to get everyone to forget the Nazis in 1966, stop embarassing them and clean up their reputations, which actually turned out to be a serious historical mistake.
Leaving aside the typo of 1966 I think these are salient points and I agree that the change of focus of the villainy is the most legitimate reason for remaking the film. As early as 1945 the Western allies were keen to court the newly liberated Germany as their attention turned to the threat posed by Russia so by 1956 with the Korean war a recent memory Communism and its exponents were the new enemies.
A bird sings and the mountain's silence deepens.

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Yes, sorry, 1966 was a typo. What's most conspicuous about the film is the change of the villain from a Eurocentric Nazi-like cabal to a hypothetical and fictional non-existent international conspiracy with a fictional name, from Nazis to scary underground anarchists, right during the McCarthy Red Scare. At that moment, we had brought into the US hundreds if not thousands of Nazi immigrants to work in our defense and intelligence industries, so this was a sort of whitewashing to make them feel better about themselves, while we quickly shifted sides from Soviet Allies (who by the way won WWII for us) to former Hitler fans. Hollywood would have jumped at the chance to remake this movie consistent with our new political climate. The earlier version was much better and more honest.

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I assumed 1966 was a typo.

Hitchcock would have known the politics around former Nazi Germany because he was involved with a 1945 film production of Holocaust films that ended up being shelved in favour of courting the Germans. The US and other Western allies installed Germans, who worked for the Nazis, in other countries as well to exploit their scientific and technological discoveries.

The earlier version was much better and more honest.
It's got a different feeling and treats the villains differently to the remake for sure.
A bird sings and the mountain's silence deepens.

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"...he was involved with a 1945 film production of Holocaust films that ended up being shelved in favour of courting the Germans."

That's very interesting. I was not aware of that, but it doesn't surprise me. If you look at the classic movies of the late '40s, you find a lot of anti-fascist films being made, and then suddenly they stopped and started making anti-commie movies where the Germans were the good guys. One good example was The Stranger, in 1946, right after the war, and Confessions of a Nazi Spy just before it, both very honest films. A lot of pre-Hollywood Hitchcock films were anti-Nazi, including The 39 steps. No wonder because England was getting bombed by the Nazis and they were inviting us to come to their aid. It switched virtually overnight.

It just shows how much Hollywood is in bed with government propagandists.

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I had this on tape awhile back and the sound quality was so poor I never watched it. I didn't realize its reputation at the time, not even sure I knew Lorre was in it.

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Why not?

How many other movies are just remakes of 39 Steps?

The movies are actually different enough they could have just sported different titles and then it wouldn't be a remake.

I immensely enjoy Young and Innocent, Saboteur, even good ol' Frenzy, but they are just 39 Steps over and over.

To an extent, I also enjoy the two remakes of 39 Steps as well. I'm on a horrible Hitch kick right now and might have to watch them. I'm watching Young and Innocent now.

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