MovieChat Forums > Good Behavior (2016) Discussion > Does (Spoiler)'s Death = 2nd Degree Murd...

Does (Spoiler)'s Death = 2nd Degree Murder?


Hi -

In Ep 2,


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Javier intends to kill Bill the golfer.


1. Javier shows Bill the syringe with drugs that will kill him by emulating a heart attack.

2. He tells Bill he's going to kill him.

3. He tells him not to run.


Bill does indeed run, trips on a root (I think), falls and dies from head trauma and/or a broken neck.

I'm wondering - does this constitute 2nd degree murder? Javier is no doubt responsible, and then he kills Bill's poor wife.

I don't think it constitutes manslaughter.

Good old Wikipedia defines voluntary manslaughter as

Voluntary manslaughter is the killing of a human being in which the offender had no prior intent to kill and acted during "the heat of passion", under circumstances that would cause a reasonable person to become emotionally or mentally disturbed.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voluntary_manslaughter

There was certainly intent to kill and Bill died, just not in the manner Javier intended.

Also - what crime is it to verbally threaten to kill someone?

I'm not trying to be morbid - just wondering from a legal perspective.

"Not all who wander are lost." - Tolkien

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Also - what crime is it to verbally threaten to kill someone?


It's called "Terroristic Threats". "A terroristic threat is when a person threatens to commit any crime of violence against another person with the intent to terrorize."

Of course the question is if it's just meant to terrorize or if it's attempted murder - since he didn't merely want to terrorize but actually kill him.

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In Florida it would be considered murder. Here, if someone dies as a result of a crime that you're committing, it's 2nd degree murder or worse. That's why if two guys try to rob a bank and one gets killed by the police, the second one can be charged with murder. I'm not sure it's like that everywhere.




I'm so ugly...that's ok 'cause so are you.

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