I ask because I know they changed a bunch of rules recently. However I'm still confused. Your example of Liverpool dates back to 2005. However in 2012, Chelsea was 6th and Tottenham finished 4th. According to the article (the link is all the way at the bottom), it claims that by Chelsea winning Champions League, Tottenham lost their spot in Champions League.
Here is an excerpt from the article:
The Europa League awaits Spurs, an outcome the club have been dreading ever since they missed out on third spot to Arsenal. Normally, finishing fourth would have guaranteed them a qualifying place for the Champions League but with Chelsea winning the trophy having finished sixth it is they who take the last of England's four places in Europe's elite competition, qualifying automatically for the group stages.
Is this one of the rules that has been changed since?
https://www.google.com/amp/s/amp.theguardian.com/football/2012/may/20/harry-redknapp-spurs-europa-league
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[deleted]
4 years ago
[deleted]
samoanjoes (56673)
4 years ago
Yes, that's what I took from it too. I'm guessing this is one of the new rules they changed. I still think it's unfair for a 4th place team to drop out of CL if both European winners are from the same league and out of top 4, but that scenario seems unlikely.
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