Why was Aileen sentenced to death for the first murder who was a RAPIST
Richard Mallory.
It says on wikipedia that he had a previous rape conviction.
I mean, I get manslaughter if you want for that one (cops never believe hookers unless they are their informants or are lucky to have a trunkload of evidence against the john like in that recent Charleston case where a hooker killed a john who turned out to be a serial killer with a trunk full of machetes and rope and shovels), but straight up death?