I know the Pill was in existence, but it was new as birth control & some 'controversy' over it was milling about in some areas....but condoms sure existed!
Why did women allow men to have sex with them without one??
I'd say this cloud is Cumulo Nimbus. Didn't he discover America? Penfold, shush.
The line from President Carr about birth control being illegal in Massachusetts was no joke. In 1953, the use and distribution of contraceptives was illegal across the United States. It wasn't until Griswold vs. Connecticut (1965) and Eisenstadt vs. Baird (1972) that birth control was legalized. So, to answer your question, that was why women "allowed" men to have sex with them without any protection--because they couldn't use that protection.
In 1953, the use and distribution of contraceptives was illegal across the United States
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And yet everyone was using them anyway under the guise of 'hygiene products'. They were an open secret. Weren't condoms available in every pharmacy, even if they might've been under the guise of something else like 'disease prevention'?
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