Questions... very confused here
Why was The New York Times not worried about "tortious interference" when printing words that Wigand spoke outside of his contractual agreement?
CBS didn't air the interview initially because of "tortious interference" or whatever, but the New York Times had no issue reporting it. Why?
And what changed that allowed CBS to finally air the interview? Why were they all of the sudden not scared of the lawsuit that would inevitably come for them for airing the interview?
And why did Bill give Lowell the three hours heads up on the unabomber? What did Bill owe Lowell? and why did he owe him whatever it is he owed him?
Thanks.