Excuse me, but neither of you two know what you're talking about. The 'American' accent is descended almost directly to the modern era from the Tudor-Stuart accent prevalent in the late 16th- to early 17th C. era when the first two of the Original 13 Colonies were founded. The language, isolated as it was, from the mother tongue, became 'frozen' in time.
Ironically you don't know what you are talking about. You are correct to say that the language split (although it was later, think more 1700s due to the constant migration and the biggest migration from the British Isles). North American English does feature some archaic features found only in some English dialects (such as rhotic-rs) but also features many deviations (more than retentions) from older varieties of English such as featuring the cot-caught merger in most dialects, the merry-mary-merry merger in almost all dialects, The flapping of intervocalic /t/ and /d/ to [Éľ] in words such as "bu
tter", "li
tter" and bo
ttle, the dropping of the "y" sound in words such as "d
uke" and "t
une" making them
DOOK and
TOON... and many more features.
Though it was seperate from UK English this doesn't mean it didn't evolve and didn't become influenced by other languages. In fact Us English has been greatly influenced by "foreign" languages after that time than British English has been. The influence of German and Spanish is especially strong.
If one listens to Irish English, one can immediately hear from whence Midwest Americans get their vowel pronunciation (and to some degree, their syllable stress and cadence).
Actually the lower Midwest gets them more from English and German and the Upper Midwest from Scandinavian (Norwegian especially) and German. I presume you are talking about the Upper Midwest which sounds the most "Irish" due to some similarities between Scandinavian and Gaelic pronunciation.
Appalachian English is more descended from Northern English (Scots-Irish is a misnomer due to SOME settlers being from the Ulster plantations... most weren't as evidenced by the many place-names; Cumberland Gap, Northumberland County etc). DO YOUR RESEARCH!
British English began its drift away from Canadian/American English around lthe 1730s under the rule of the Hanoverian German Georges, whose earliest monarchs never cared enough about their English subjects to learn the language properly. Indeed, George I never bothered to learn English at all, nor even to go occupy his new English throne, preferring instead, to remain in his cold and dreary northern Germany.
Northern Germany being no colder or drearier (it has warmer summers for one thing) than the majority of Britain.
George I was an elderly man when he took the throne so it isn't surprising that he didn't know English.
The second George was little better. He ferried back and forth between Hanover and London and spoke English with a heavy 'Cherman' accent his entire life. While George 3 was the first to be born and raised in England, he and his family spoke German at home amongst themselves. Thus the 'King's English' began to become bastardised with European vowel pronunciations introduced, ironically, by the royal family, itself!
Wrong! George III's household spoke English as (despite his father's lack of English skills) he was raised as a native English speaker and would have had an upper-class southern English accent. I am an anti-Monarchist but I at least try to be truthful.
The 'Midwest Accent' then (which our Canadian brethren share with us) is the standard one which is taught to everyone entering the broadcasting trade and to those foreign students wishing to learn 'American' English. And for your information, no one I've ever spoken to pronounces 'calm' with an R. Even in Boston, the word is pronounced 'caahm' which a broad A sound close to the A in apple, and with a lightly aspirated H.
He was writing how we would describe the "A" in Southern English and RP in the words "calm", "castle", "bath" which we would depict as "carm", "carcel", "barth" (I being Northern don't pronounce them like this however) being that we are (mostly) non-rhotic and thus don't think an "r" is pronounced the way an American would pronounce it (try not to be ignorant). If you actually read what he wrote he was saying North Americans pronounce the "l" in "calm" which is true for some dialects which do pronounce it more as "cal'm" even though standard American English has it as "cahm".
"The game's afoot!"
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