I don't get it


In the sequel, Blaculas victims don't show up in pictures. So in the police station, its determined that a vampire is responsible for the killing. So how come the same analysis isn't made in this one with any of his victims? Surely someone had to photograph the murdered victims

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i guess it's because blacula farted before was turned into a vampire. if he hadn't who knows how things might have turned out?

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