MovieChat Forums > The Alamo (1960) Discussion > Isn't the Alamo a Monument to Slavery?

Isn't the Alamo a Monument to Slavery?


When American settlers came to Texas, they owned slaves. The Mexicans did not believe in owning human beings, so this was one of the causes of the war. When Texas became a State it was a slave State.

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Nice piece of propoganda. You've posted this same "out of context" message in three places around IMDB. Let's make some sense of it.

"When American settlers came to Texas, they owned slaves."

That's an inaccurate statement. While it's true that SOME of the settlers that came from the regions to the north (not all were from already formed states), owned slaves, they didn't ALL own slaves. Also, not ALL of them were American, by definition, or by citizenship. Some were Creole, Acadian, French, Spanish, British, Irish, German, and various other nationalities.

The Mexicans did not believe in owning human beings, so this was one of the causes of the war

This is ALSO false. While slavery was "offically" outlawed, the Mexican army thought nothing of riding into the Arizona territory and making off with numerous captives of all descriptions from the various tribes from the region. These people were used for everything imaginable, from sex slaves to currency, yet the official stance was...you guessed it, no slavery.

Even though Santa Ana claimed this as one of his reasons for dealing so harshly with the "rebels," he seemed so shocked that they refused to join the Catholic church, and to take Spanish surnames. Both of these conditions were requirements of land ownership in Mexico, and you could NOT stay in Mexico without owning land, or working on the land. Oh, and if you WORKED on the land, the same rules applied as if you OWNED the land.....

In short, the Alamo is not a monument to slavery, but to a battle that NEVER should have been fought, by gallant, brave men who were doing what they thought was right.


Courage is being scared to death - but saddling up anyway. John Wayne

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I don't know about harrytrue's motives in raising this issue, but they're not relevant to its truth or otherwise. The question of slavery IS releveant to the Texan fight for independence and to the film, which does include a scene on the subject.

Compare Wayne's film with Hancock's (2004). In Wayne's, Jim Bowie frees his slave, an old guy, and tells him he can leave. The man says that if he's now free he can decide for himself where to go. So he stays and dies vainly trying to protect his former master. He's still the faithful old retainer. Some might say a bit of an Uncle Tom.

In Hancock's, Bowie allows his slave to leave, but tells him he's still his property and that he'll come looking for him later. Now I read this as Bowie, knowing the situation's hopeless, doing the decent thing and saving the man's life. But he is still maintaining the principle of slavery.

Turning to your remarks:

Sure, Mexico was a military dictatorship. Its apparently liberal constitution was a sham. To criticise the Texans for owning slaves (some of them) is not to deny them the right to rebel; nor is it to support Mexico.

You're right that the Alamo defenders and their leaders outside were from many backgrounds, but their aim was to create a nation on the lines of the USA. Certainly Houston's goal was to bring Texas into the Union at length.

And when it did it entered as a slave state.

To be brave and gallant is not necessarily to be right in everything.

Having said that, The Alamo IS above all a monument not to slavery but
courage and self-sacrifice.

Oddly, as I write this I'm listening to a recording of Laurence Olivier delivering the speech before Agincourt. 'Gentlemen in England,now abed, shall thnk themselves accursed they were not here.'

It could have been written for the men of The Alamo



It ain't like it used to be. But it'll do.

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There's so much oversimplification on these boards (and in our society). Settlers came to Texas owning slaves? Very rarely. Texas was settled by anglos later than the Old South and had different opportunities for economy.

Sure, there was a little rice grown there but an insignificant amount compared to the big attractions - having your own land, and raising cattle.

I appreciate the two responding posters' desire to be accurate rather than throwing partial facts around.

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Well said, except I will still say that the overall issue of slavery is more of a personal issue to individuals rather than to the Alamo defenders on the whole.

Courage is being scared to death - but saddling up anyway. John Wayne

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"the overall issue of slavery is more of a personal issue to individuals rather than to the Alamo defenders on the whole."

Yes, definitely. It's one element of a complex political situation.
It's also a favorite assumption to make these days, and many jump on that bandwagon without getting fully informed. We used to call that a "smear."

Someone once told me that Beethoven didn't bathe very often. That's a shame but has little to do with his importance.







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Y'all know I've got point this out. Slavery in the south, which thank God Texas is part of, was only practiced by roughly 14% of the southern population. Sooo...it was more a personal issue then a political issue. That is unless you want to buy into your own propaganda in which case I hope you have a lovely trip to a room with padded walls.

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I'm sure the 'Slavery issue' was a personal issue to 100% of the slave population no matter where they were.

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I find these "fact" conflicting as most facts are.
It is hard to believe only 14% of southerners had slaves, yet of the 9 million southerners at the start of the Civil War, 4.5 were slaves!

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Actually, 14% seems high to me. Some of the plantations owned hundreds maybe thousands of slaves. I helped at my local library one summer. One guy had collected information over the years about the various black familes in the area and donated it to the library to help people find out more about their ancestry. One of the things that I had to do was help organize some note cards about a census or something in the 1850/60. I'd say roughly half the slaves were owned by a single family.

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I read that Sam Houston wanted to join the Union as a free state and his house was stoned or something. Fourteen percent of the southerners owned slaves? That would be the richest 14% of the Southerners, I suppose. Not everyone can afford that lifestyle. Anyway I didn't like John Wayne's crummy film. Much better was 1955 with Sterling Hayden in the Last Command playing Jim Bowie.

I miss Big Band music and talented singers. Leonard Cohen is my idol. Civility, harmony, unity!

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It's not just about ownership though. Those that couldn't afford slaves would still benefit from slavery. For instance wearing cheap clothes made out of cotton.......

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I don't think anyone went to war over cheap cotton clothes. The cotton gin had already made cotton clothes cheap, slavery just allowed cotton growers to harvest more and make bigger personal profits. The cost of raw cotton on the market wasn't affected by where it came from.

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Ahh,

Always so refreshing to encounter the "stars and bars" especially in these troubled times when our precious, god given rights to oppress and invade are being challenged.

I grew up in the south and was fortunate enough to escape the myopia and centuries old ignorance
that has plagued it.

I do think that the slavery issue is a separate but very important issue in this case. The misplaced notion, so prevalent these days, of autonomous American "rightness" shouldn't lessen the courage and sacrifice of
those who perished at the Alamo. However, outside of the moral expediency of manifest destiny, texas had no legal right to claim itself as a separate form Mexico http://www.sonofthesouth.net/texas/index.htm.

The southern members of congress, due to the pro slavery attitude in texas, were pushing to add this massive addition to their slave based economy (let's not kid ourselves into thinking that the 14% of slave owners were not controlling the economy of the south being almost wholly agrarian) so it was arbitrarily annexed from mexico in 1844 http://www.sonofthesouth.net/texas/annexation-texas.htm

In other words, americans had no business being there, glory, manifest destiny, and walt disney co not withstanding, and siege of the Alamo was a unnecessary loss of life. Lesson to be learned in there somewhere.

Oh, and the south can keep Texas!

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First, it seems to me that your "God given right to oppress and invade" is not being challenged enough. Yeah, I know, you were trying to be sarcastic. I too am from the south, Texas to be exact and I am a military veteran. Unlike you I prefer to engage the myopic and ignorant including but not limited to my own beloved father, friends and anyone else. While I assume that most of the south today would agree that slavery is and was wrong I know that there is still a feeling among some that blacks are somehow inferior. While it's not my belief it is also one not confined to the south. Ignorant and myopic people live in all 50 of our United States.

Now on to the good stuff. Nowhere in your comments do you address the fact that Texas became a nation unto itself in 1835. There was no manifest destiny of the United States involved. These were simply people who desired self determination much as the founders of the United States did. I'm assuming that you haven't "escaped" from the United States yet.

Oh, in 1860 there were 4 million slaves in the USA. Texas had 180,000. Hardly a massive addition. You ARE correct in stating that the decision to join the confederacy was based on economics. One third of the states population was enslaved blacks, mostly to the south of Houston in the coastal plains and in the eastern areas adjacent to Louisiana engaged in agrarian acrivities. For the most part the rest of the state was slave free. Thats just evil politicians for ya. Sam Houston was thrown out of office for his unionist leanings.

Oh, and the legitimate Mexican government while denouncing slavery embraced the concept of peonism. You know, upper class and peons (slaves without the nasty word). They also endorsed the very first importation of African slaves to the state in 1816.

On to the Alamo. Guys who fought for what they believed in (self determination). Willing to die for that (bravery in the face of fire). So, stay where you are, Texas don't need ya, you and Harrytrue (the original poster on this) can go suck an egg.

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An interesting point, which may be relevant to this discussion, is that the war for Texas was fought along ethnic lines, and that the resistors of the Alamo were mostly of European descent. Travis, Bowie and Crockett are British surnames. Houston might be French, but I'm not sure.

The original point about slavery is well-taken, though, since Texas did enter the Union as a slave state. Also, if Jim Bowie owned a slave at the Alamo, how many others had he owned in his lifetime? High flown talk about freedom and the rights of men is cheap when it comes from slaveholders, even if they are brave.

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If the war for Texas was fought along ethnic lines, what about the wars for Zacatecas and Coahuila? Texas was not the only Mexican state revolting against Santa Anna’s despotism, and to single it out because of Anglo participation is, of course, racist.

To simplify the Texas Revolution as a race war and a fight for slavery is as foolish as it is ignorant, and a slap in the face to the likes of abolitionist Dr. Amos Pollard, the black freedman John, Carlos Espalier (the illegitimate, unwanted black boy whom James Bowie reared as his own son), all of whom died in the Alamo alongside other American and European immigrants and native Tejanos.

By the way, it was not uncommon for Bowie and his family, despite being slave traders, to free slaves and rear “free men of color” as members of their family. See “Col. James Bowie’s Freed Slaves” by Joseph Musso in The Alamo Journal # 142, September 2006, pp. 3-9.

History is never as simple as simple people would have us believe.

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Now johnny, you can't compel human beings to labour for your benefit without pay, and you especially can't chain, beat, rape and murder them, and then say that your sins have been mitigated because you treated a few others decently. There are some things that are irreducibly simple.

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Sir, you mistake me for somebody else, for I have done none of those things.

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Well, the "you" in the sentence that seems to have offended you was idiomatic for "one." I certainly wasn't implying that I thought that you had kept slaves. I hope you're not putting me on about that.

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I would have thought that you would hope that I _was_ putting you on, which I certainly was, being a wiseguy in my response to your idiomatic use of “you” for “one,” a pet peeve of mine.

My original post, however, was to show that the Bowies, for all their fierce reputation, had the capacity for mercy as well. That they “compel[led] human beings to labour for … benefit without pay,” I have no doubt, as I assume you are referring to slavery and not the Mexican peon system. As far as whether they resorted to chains, beatings, rape, and murder, I cannot say, as I have encountered no evidence that they did.

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So you were putting me on? Good. I thought for a second there that you might be crazy.

How do you imagine that slaves were compelled to slavery? Do you think that they just decided to obey white slaveowners as a vocational choice, or because they were a feckless, childlike people who wanted to be told what to do? They had to be forced to work and suffer and obey, and the methods of coercion were violent, and included torture unto death. Female slaves were subject to sexual exploitation in all cases, without recourse to any protection in law. Jim Bowie's participation in the slave trade can only have implicated him in unspeakable human evil. There is no way to deny that and maintain a plausible historicity.

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To the original poster: You are a moron, and obviously NOT a Texas, thank God, we don't want someone who could so wholly misinterpret a historic battle. I don't know where you're from, but if you got off your bum and actually did some research you might actually realize that the battle at the Alamo had nothing to do with slavery, and everything to do with Texans fighting for independence.

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You've missed the whole point, indie. The Texans were fighting for their own independence, but were willing to deny independence to Negro slaves. This diluted the justice of their cause a little, wouldn't you say? It tainted their heroism and destroyed their claim to nobility.

If Jim Bowie was a slaveholder, he was a vicious bastard who got what was coming to him when the Mexicans killed him. That's how it shakes out, in the end.

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You are one bitter, ignorant, presumptuous a..hole. And obviously you have no sense of valor, bravery, history or even common sense.
Having a slave was common in 19th century America, in fact with out slavery blacks would have never settles in large numbers in the U.S. Ok it was a not too nice institution but next time you see a black working in a restaraunt or in an office cleaning it, or shining you shoes remember that is what those folks were basically doing. They were just hired help for rich people-which we are all today-nothing has changed jack wipe.

Go read a book sometime and stop wasting what little is left of your brain matter on senseless chat sites.

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Now jjman, slaves were not just a subset of people who were really, really poorly paid. Slaves could be worked to death, beaten and otherwise tormented, and killed on the whims of their owners. Female slaves often bore mulatto children, because they could be compelled to have sex with their white owners. All these phenomena were supported by law.

You can't just excuse a great evil like slavery by saying that it was an accepted custom of the times.

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With Rick Perry as governor, I feel like a slave.

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Yawn. With the Texas Governor having so few constitutional powers (being perhaps the weakest, executive-wise of the 50 states), there is no way the actions
of our governor, no matter who he/she is; can have *any* dramatic effect on our
day-to-day lives. If you still feel "enslaved", it is due to the personal life decisions *you* have made.

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In all nation's histories there are a lot of things that are shameful from their pasts. But things also need to be looked at in the context of the time as well as from our modern point of view.

I have met few people who still think slavery is a good thing, although I have met a few. It is a thing this world can do without, even though it does still exist. Not necessarily in the institutional way it was, but more through criminality.

Looking at slavery at the Alamo in context to the time, just about everyone would be accepting that was how things were, whether they liked it or not. I doubt that any slave owners thought they were doing wrong, they would most likely have seen it as just economics and business.

Even today we still see the same attitude, that if something is for money or business then it should be accepted. But in my opinion business today has a lot of responsibility for the rise of terrorism.

Many of the things business empires have done have affected people all around the third World. Then to be told that they must accept it because "it's business" especially when your culture revolves around people and not money. Then a situation is ripe for the recruitment of terrorists. After all you can only push people so far before they fight back to try and protect their way of life. Or what they may see as their freedom (parallel to the Alamo there! ;))

This doesn't mean that I think this justifies terrorism, because I don't. But I see Western business and industry as a major contributing factor.

I am talking about all the third World where business takes advantage of people, not any part in particular. I also am not pointing the figure at any country on it's own. But I am pointing my finger at big business!

I know there are many good businesses who take their global responsibilities seriously. But there are many who see profit before people. To my mind when I hear people saying that using cheap labour in the Third World is acceptable because it makes economic sense. So that we can buy the cheap products we like, I can't help but see the parallel between this and the attitude that allowed slavery.

So rather than only criticise the past, maybe we need to look more closely at ourselves and see if we have learnt the lessons of history.

So in conclusion I don't think we are necessarily so different from the people in the time of Alamo.

Admittedly we don't have slavery (thank God), but we still take advantage of those that we can. But after all, it is just in the name of business. So that's OK then...............


The Movies On Air Radio Ken & Roger Show Sun 2pm ET/7pm UK http://www.tmoaradio.com/news.php

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If you really believed that slavery was so evil, you would be trying to help the slaves in the world today, in places like Africa and Asia, rather than talking about slavery 200 years ago.

Or maybe the fact that most of the owners aren't white means that its ok in your eyes.

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"It tainted their heroism and destroyed their claim to nobility". I got no argument with you but what would you have the Texians do? Somehow as a Mexican state repudiate slavery before they fought for independence? Hell, nobody is perfect, hell we as a nation still got a long way to go. That doesn't mean we go back to being a subject of England till we get it right. By your way of thinking the fight for independence from England was tainted and without nobility. Let's stop beating this dead horse, the A-hole who started this thread has gotten more than his share of miles out of it.






That's funny, I don't remember eating anything purple!

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Hi

I'm Scottish, so i guess I don't have any part to play in this thread really but, I believe the Alamo was not a monument to slavery.



You wanna f * * k with me? Okay. Say hello to my little friend! (Tony Montana)

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I suppose next you are going to tell us all that European only applies to northern european countries?

Here's a clue - Spain is in Europe. So in essense, you had mostly Europeans fighting other Europeans. Yeah, I know, European Spanish enter married with the indians more that their counterparts in the north - but I'm sick and tired of this garbage of giving the Mexicans more "honor" in how they handled Indians than their counterparts north of the border. Let's remember what Cortes did to the Aztecs....

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That percentage is probably too but those were the ones who controlled the political machinery, just as the factory/mill owners did in the north. That's why in our War Between the States most of the fighting, dying, and suffering was done by those who didn't own slaves or mills/factories. They were bamboozled into it by their leaders spewing platitudes about the rights of states and preserving the Union. If they had been told that it was really being fought to preserve the profits of those two groups there would have been an uprising on both sides that would have made the New York draft riots look like a playground fight.

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I think Campbell's "An Empire for Slavery" makes it clear that extending the South's slaveholding area, even into another country, was an importnt consideration for many settlers in Mexican Texa.

Learning Spanish language and becoming a Mexican citizen were requirements for Stephen F. Austin's colony-- though not well enforced.

When Texas joined the Union and Nueces County became a county, it made copies of the Mexican deed for the land that became Corpus Christi. I found the handwritten copy made in 1846 in Spanish, copied from the Matamoros records.

"Para que tenger en verificativo el Segundo como Etranjero se compromete a recubar del Supremo Gobno mejicano la correspondiente carta del Ciudadania pa obtenir dereche a bienes raíces dentro el Teritorio de la Republica.
Enrique Villareal H. L. Kinney
Rincon del Oso 4 Enero de 1840
Matamoros Abl 12 de 1840"

"The party of the second part as a foreigner is committed after this agreement to obtain from the Supreme Mexican Government the corresponding letter of citizenship for the right to buy real estate within the territory of the Republic."

Mexico claimed the land between the Nueces and Rio Grande in 1840 when Kinney bought the plot that became Corpus Christi. Kinney had set up a trading post (ie smuggling post) on Corpus Christi without the permission of Villareal, who had received a grant from Mexico for his service in the war of Mexican independence. Villareal came with "300 of his close friends" to enquire what Kinney was doing on his land. Kinney bluffed Villareal but knew he could not beat him, and Villareal as an absentee owner could not stay around to enforce his ownership. So a compromise was struck to sell the land. But to be a landowner in territory claimed by Mexico, Kinney had to become a Mexican citizen.
This is an 1846 document I have held in my own hand.

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It is a story of a few rag tag men who joined together to fight the tyranny of a greater, more powerful foe who wanted to oppress them. Who cares nor remembers the slavery, it was legal anyway at the time. Most of these men and the majority of the soldiers in the Confederacy didn’t own slaves anyway.

In the end these men won the war, those these brave souls gave their lives in return. And in the Mexican War of 1846-48 we rightfully acquired land that was won in a fair and just war. All those liberals that say otherwise are ignorant of history and clouded by their stupid ideology. The US Army in that war never numbered more than 11,000, yet they whipped a Mexican Army much larger and on their home turf. I would say that was a fair fight, huh?

This is a great story, of men of all different and divergent races and ethnicities joining together for one common cause. It is a cause and notion we would be well advised to learn from today.

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Slaves or not slaves? Just the facts please.
1. some of the citizens of Texas owned slaves
2. Texas was admitted as a slave state and joined the Confederacy.
3. Even the boys from good ole Tenn. were from a slave state that joined the Confederacy.
4. this fight was for indepndance,freedom, fighting a heartless dictator, who changed the rules once he came into power.
5. Plus approx 90% of the people who fought for the confederacy, could not afford slaves,the war was fought for states rights, again 10% of the money controlling 90% of the people.
Again this heroic "Battle" was fought for freedom from tyranny.
It had nothing to do with Slavery, Enough Said!!!

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If we throw out opinion, and only consider fact, there are interesting comparisons of historical implications and social relevance.

1. FACT: AMERICAN SLAVES WERE OWNED BY BLACK TRIBAL LEADERS IN AFRICA – WHERE SLAVERY WAS A FACT OF LIFE, FOR TENS OF THOUSANDS OF YEARS. [The notion that American blacks were free and proud black African men, who were enslaved by white men in America, is pure fantasy. They were not. They had been enslaved by African tribal leaders for CENTURIES. (When someone speaks of being descended from slaves, and only speaks of the "cotton fields" in this country, they fail to address CENTURIES of black enslavement in Africa. Sadly, agenda causes folks to be less than honest, if telling half the truth is more self-serving. Clearly, it is much more dramatic, and self-satisfying, to pretend that their ancestors were "strong and noble" than those who had been conquered. (How do they explain that their "strong and noble and intelligent" leaders were over-powered, for that length of time, and in those numbers, and never figured out how to outrun, or out power, or outwit the slave traders. We can assume slave traders weren't very fit, or very bright. How were they so darn successful, for so long?)

For centuries, powerful African black tribal leaders (who had guns and armies), captured weaker blacks, and enslaved them (to do the work that the tribal leaders didn’t want to do, and did not expect their friends and family to do either). They were keeping slaves thousands of years before any white man set foot on this continent. They were keeping slaves before we knew how to build boats and cross oceans.

The black tribal leaders were approached by traders who wanted money for their goods, but the tribal leaders had more slaves than money, so they arranged to trade people, and became part of the triangle of trade, exchanging spare slaves for weapons, ammunition, watches, boots, horses, tack, carriages, cannons, tents, linens, chairs, tables, dishes, silverware, pots and pans, specialty food items, fabric, and finished clothing (including uniforms for their armies). The blacks who were brought to America as slaves WERE ALREADY SLAVES (or captives, same thing) in Africa, so they were not “sold into slavery” because they already were slaves. Their life in America was no worse than the slavery they faced in Africa, and sometimes even better. Some circumstances are nuanced, and would not be logical without foundation, so I will not include those. However, American masters did not automatically hold the position that slaves were “disposable” or “expendable.”

After being moved to the new world, the slaves (or their children) were freed by 1863 (and often times before that). THAT MAGIC DATE DID NOT BRING FREEDOM TO AFRICAN SLAVES; ONLY AMERICAN SLAVES. This is a monumental truth that is worth a great deal of consideration. Not only were the slaves freed, but THEIR FAMILIES WERE ALLOWED TO PROSPER AS FULL CITIZENS. ONLY THOSE WHO ARE NAIVE OF THE WAYS OF THE WORLD TAKE THIS FOR GRANTED, OR AS A GRAIN OF SALT. This is another monumental truth. Anyone who disregards this circumstance are truly exhibiting their lack of foundational understanding

QUESTION: During what years were slaves brought to North America? How many slaves were brought to North America? When were those slaves freed? When were their “African” cousins freed? What is the condition of African slaves today?

2. FACT: MANY AFRICAN COUNTRIES HAVE NOT FOUND A WAY TO END SLAVERY EVEN TODAY, AFTER 10,000 years of slavery. WHY ARE THOSE WHO CONSTANTLY SPEAK OUT ABOUT THE "LONG PAST" HISTORY OF SLAVERY IN THE USA, NOT FIGHTING THE CURRENT SLAVERY IN AFRICA????????????? [A few conservatives have gone to Africa to fight slavery, they can't do it alone.]

3. FACT: OUR FOUNDING FATHERS ADDRESSED SLAVERY AND THE GREATEST DOCUMENT TO FREEDOM IN THE HISTORY OF THE WORLD, THE UNITED STATES CONSTITUTION dealt with the issue of slavery, and included language that would ban the importation of slaves after a mere 21 years. Then, in another 14 years, slaves were returned to Africa if they wanted to return. Then, in another 41 years, SLAVERY WAS ABOLISHED IN THE USA. That’s right. It only took the USA a total of 76 years (including a war for good measure) to RIGHT THE WRONGS OF RECORDED AND EVEN PRE-RECORDED HISTORY, GOING BACK 10,000 YEARS OR MORE.

NO COUNTRY IN THE HISTORY OF THE WORLD CAN MATCH OUR RECORD OF DEALING WITH A “PROBLEM” AS QUICKLY AS WE DID. We resolved a terrible TEN THOUSAND YEAR OLD PROBLEM IN 76 YEARS. THAT IS A PHENOMENAL RECORD AND AN AMAZING RESULT. Yet, after LEADING THE WORLD in ending slavery, the USA still gets kicked in the teeth (by those who have zero understanding of actual history).

Why do some "self-appointed" "black" leaders continue to get rich on the false stories of their injured background??? Why do they not tell the truth, and PRAISE this country for the GOOD THAT WE HAVE DONE in lessening slavery all over the world???

4. FACT: In the case of TEXAS, the abolition of importation of slaves from foreign lands was accomplished before Texas became a state, and LIMITED slavery continued for only another 20 years after Texas joined the union. SHOW ME ONE COUNTRY IN AFRICA WHERE SLAVERY WAS ELIMINATED AFTER 20 YEARS. INDEED, SHOW ME ONE COUNTRY ANY WHERE IN THE WORLD WHERE SLAVERY WAS ABOLISHED AFTER A MERE 20 YEARS.


<<<<<<“When American settlers came to Texas, they owned slaves. The Mexicans did not believe in owning human beings, so this was one of the causes of the war. When Texas became a State it was a slave State.”>>>>>>


Rather than indicting entire populations, and making false assumptions, one can certainly deny that American settlers who came to Texas did not own slaves. If the maker of this statement knew anything whatsoever about “owning slaves,” he/she would know why that statement is nonsense.

Likewise, the next statement about “the Mexicans” is incorrect. They cannot be excluded by some emotional sweep of human kindness by the writer. The records of their "owning" humans is too numerous to be ignored. Again, a sweeping generalization that is absolutely not true.

Finally, if the maker of this statement were better versed as to WHY the states chose to join as “slave states” he/she would know that those valid reasons had NOTHING to do with “slavery” per se.

Flying by “the seat of your pants” at the corner bar, after a couple of beers, on a Friday evening, is one thing, but to go to a credible site, like IMDb, and to then indict entire populations, is just plain wrong. To avoid apocryphal historical blunders, it is wise to use peer reviewed writings of topics. Any local community college history department can provide a reading list to provide factual information to balance opinion.

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I've always thought it was silly to focus on America as some kind of "racist nation." When in fact, we have had a good record of assimilating more diversity into our nation than any other.

Our racial evolution is not perfect or swift but it's the most "rapid" change in the class of a group of people, ever devised by humans.

Like it or not, slaves in America had already been subjugated by lots of other people including members of their own race, long before they ever left Africa.

The Arabs were intermediaries between the interior and the coasts where slaves were bought. I read that in some places they still are. When we talk about slavery in America, we never talk enough about slavery in Africa. Perhaps because it still exists and that's too messy.

Do intervening hands dilute the "sins" of American slave owners? No, but it does give context to the times. Exploitation of the weak and disadvantaged has been a part of the economy in every period in human history. Looking at America's history of slavery as only shameful, is to miss the nobility in the way that the question was faced and ultimately addressed.

To bring this back to the movie and the original post, no- the Alamo is not a tribute to slavery. Yes, Texas came in on the side of the slave states but its economic conditions didn't have a need for a lot of slaves. So there weren't a lot in Texas.

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A slave is a slave, whether in 1830 or 2008, Africa or the Americas. I wouldn't want to change places with one. I don't care about the degree of cruelty vis-a-vis Ghana or Tennessee. Working unpaid from can to can't and being subjected to the whims of "masters" is no kind of life. I don't give a %$#* how "few" Texans owned slaves. None of them should've owned any.

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Will someone please ask the Apache tribe of Native Americans if Mexico believed in slavery? Or in buying scalps? Or in sexual servitude? Or in forced religious conversion? Or in GENOCIDE? Guess when the last massacre of Apaches by the Mexican Army occurred in Mexico... in 1933, if you'd like to know. I'd like to hear from someone who can name one single human society or culture that didn't ever practice slavery. To single out Texas for condemnation because of sins which are common to the entire human race is ignorant beyond belief, or deliberately deceptive. In either case your credibility falls to ZERO in this type of discussion. As things now stand, old human evils like slavery, piracy, sexual servitude, and genocide (it's currently fashionable to call it "ethnic cleansing")are almost as widespread today as they were 200 years ago. Go bleed somewhere else, please, and leave this forum for film discussion.

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My, what a very convenient attitude, BRADley. It must be such a lonely feeling to be the most morally righteous person who ever existed on the face of the planet. How magnanimous of you to deign us mere mortals swith your, shall I say, regal presence. Perhaps you could fart for us all, at some point.

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Decided to return four years later. And the name is BradFORD, not not BradLEE. If you're gonna criticize, get the name straight!

"May I bone your kipper, Mademoiselle?"

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Obviously Harrytrue is either a left wing extremist who has an obsession with slavery, which was abolished over 140 years ago. Or he's one of the mexican thieves who is using this forum to spread pro mexican, anti American propaganda. In any case, those stinking mexicans that he claims didn't believe in owning human beings are certainly coming north of the border nowadays in droves to steal what we Americans own. Maybe it's time for another war between the U.S. and Mexico.

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[deleted]

Just by reading the comments in this thread you realize how history is skewered shamelessly. People have been saying, "Only a few owned slaves" or "There weren't that many slaves". And they are basically downplaying the role slavery played on Texas society. Whether it was 100 slaves or 1 million slaves in Texas (and the South) the key issue here is that there were people enslaved against their will.

The key issue here is that slavery existed. Even if a minority owned slaves, the vast majority condoned slavery. Texas whined about Mexico and later the U.S. government trampling on their rights while ignoring the rights of slaves. Hypocrisy at its finest. You guys can say these "brave men who died at the Alamo were fighting for freedom". But the fact is they did not care for the freedom of enslaves blacks. And when Texas became part of the United States, they segregated the Mexicans who had been living on that land for years to a marginalized existence. Then after the U.S. Civil War was over these Texans instituted segregation to the fullest extent.

These Texans were only fighting for freedom if you have a twisted view of freedom and history.

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@JTfriday

The point of the OP was that slavery was a basis for the war. That is untrue. No one here is claiming slavery isn't an awful part of the US and Texas past, but only that slavery itself had little to no bearing on the war or the desire for Texans to become an independent republic.

The key issue is not that slavery existed, like you state. Slavery has been around for thousands of years and the people of the 1800's were just another in a long line in history who allowed slavery to prosper. Racial slavery may seem to be something that is American in nature, but the practice of slavery has deep roots. You can look back to ancient Rome and see that slaves as well as permanently lower classed individuals were a key staple of their society. Serfdom in many ways was a class-based slavery that occurred throughout all of Europe in the Middle Ages. Even India's caste system was in many ways a class-based hierarchy of intolerance and bigotry.

But, to claim that individuals who gave their lives fighting for a respectable cause are somehow unworthy because some people condoned slavery is a ridiculous assertion on your part. A man's actions stand apart from soceity's beliefs and great men even in less-than-perfect times can still be seen as admirable.

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@JTfriday

The point of the OP was that slavery was a basis for the war. That is untrue. No one here is claiming slavery isn't an awful part of the US and Texas past, but only that slavery itself had little to no bearing on the war or the desire for Texans to become an independent republic.

The key issue is not that slavery existed, like you state. Slavery has been around for thousands of years and the people of the 1800's were just another in a long line in history who allowed slavery to prosper. Racial slavery may seem to be something that is American in nature, but the practice of slavery has deep roots. You can look back to ancient Rome and see that slaves as well as permanently lower classed individuals were a key staple of their society. Serfdom in many ways was a class-based slavery that occurred throughout all of Europe in the Middle Ages. Even India's caste system was in many ways a class-based hierarchy of intolerance and bigotry.

But, to claim that individuals who gave their lives fighting for a respectable cause are somehow unworthy because some people condoned slavery is a ridiculous assertion on your part. A man's actions stand apart from soceity's beliefs and great men even in less-than-perfect times can still be seen as admirable.

Here's another guy who is skewering history. Slavery was definitely one of the top three key issues that motivated the war. To say that slavery was not the key issue for the war is like saying Pearl Harbor didn't push the U.S. into WW2.

I don't think they were fighting for a "respectable cause". These people were immigrants to Mexico. Many of them were illegal immigrants in fact. And they blatantly broke laws that Mexico tried to enforce. It's ironic how today Texans will complain about illegal immigrants blatantly breaking laws when U.S. settlers into Texas did it to Mexicans first in the mid-1800s.

And you're skewering history by saying "some of them condoned slavery". You're making it seem as if it were a small minority when in fact a huge number condoned slavery. Texans were fully against the abolitionist movement. They were also the strongest segregationists after the U.S. Civil War. Nothing they did was admirable.
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@JT Friday

Let me put it a different way. If Texans had been allowed to become an independent state in Mexico, then the Texas Revolution most likely would not have occurred. Slavery was not the driving force because for many years the Texans either ignored the laws or found loop holes to hide their slavery. Once the government became more centralized and less free, the Texans felt their rights were being taken away and thus tried to revolt to form their own nation.

As far as immigration, the Mexicans actually loosened their immigration laws to allow more Americans to come to Texas for a number of years leading up to the revolution. That is highly different than the current state of immigration in the Southern US today. The US has never officially loosened any immigration laws, but people are merely circumventing those laws. The Mexicans in the 1820's were welcoming people to Texas because of the low population rate there and the amount of Indian raids that occurred.

And, again, just because people of a certain era acted in a certain way during a time that it was deemed as acceptable does not mean all of the people there were intolerant slavery-lovers. The Nazi's were surely awful, but I doubt you would say that anyone from Germany during WWII was an evil person, simply because the people in control had certain beliefs and viewpoints.

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@JT Friday

Let me put it a different way. If Texans had been allowed to become an independent state in Mexico, then the Texas Revolution most likely would not have occurred. Slavery was not the driving force because for many years the Texans either ignored the laws or found loop holes to hide their slavery. Once the government became more centralized and less free, the Texans felt their rights were being taken away and thus tried to revolt to form their own nation.

You say, "The Texas felt their rights were being taken away". What rights did these people have? They were immigrants. The first group had arrived in 1822. They were in that country for less two decades. They weren't even citizens. What rights did these immigrants who blatantly broke the law have? Imagine if immigrants in the United States started an armed revolt today. Regardless of rights, people would say they were wrong.

As far as immigration, the Mexicans actually loosened their immigration laws to allow more Americans to come to Texas for a number of years leading up to the revolution. That is highly different than the current state of immigration in the Southern US today. The US has never officially loosened any immigration laws, but people are merely circumventing those laws. The Mexicans in the 1820's were welcoming people to Texas because of the low population rate there and the amount of Indian raids that occurred.

I think you seriously need to look at how immigration works in the U.S. Many immigrants are actually given grants by the government to start their own businesses. Grants that ordinary citizens are denied.

And, again, just because people of a certain era acted in a certain way during a time that it was deemed as acceptable does not mean all of the people there were intolerant slavery-lovers. The Nazi's were surely awful, but I doubt you would say that anyone from Germany during WWII was an evil person, simply because the people in control had certain beliefs and viewpoints.

The difference between Germans during WWII and Texans during the 1800s is that the most Germans did not know about the atrocities their leaders were doing. Texans, on the other hand, were extremely well acquainted with slavery. All Texans were acquainted with slavery. So they condoned it. And fought against abolitionists; they also fought in favor of segregation. After these men had fought in the so-called "Texas Revolution" they instituted slavery. They also forced segregation upon the Mexicans, whose families had been living in Mexico long before the U.S. was even a nation. And, ironically, many of these Mexicans they segregated had supported them in their war against Mexico.

My argument still stands that only a person with a perverse view of history and freedom can say these men were fighting for freedom.


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You say, "The Texas felt their rights were being taken away". What rights did these people have? They were immigrants...They weren't even citizens. What rights did these immigrants who blatantly broke the law have? Imagine if immigrants in the United States started an armed revolt today. Regardless of rights, people would say they were wrong.


You really need to read up on history. Here is a published article from immigration-online.org

"In 1824, the Mexican government passed a law formalizing these colonization efforts, offering land and tax exemptions to foreign settlers. Mexico hoped that these settlers would create a kind of buffer between Mexico and the United States and also deal with the hostile Indians in the region. Most of the American settlers, however, saw their Mexican citizenship as a mere formality and still considered themselves to be Americans."

The point here is that yes, they didn't behave like Mexicans, but alas, they were indeed granted citizenship under the new government. By 1830 the Mexican Government realized that was a mistake and began to rescind a lot of the laws that enabled Americans to settle in the territory. The unsettled land that had been considered hostile and lacking in resources now had flourishing colonies due to these immigrants who had become legal citizens. The Mexican Constitution of 1824 was nearly identical to the US Constitution (In fact it was based on the US Constitution) which combined with the fact that land had become more expensive in the US, many Americans felt comfortable in Texas because of the similarities to US law, the relaxed citizenship, cheaper land, and the original deal that allowed immigrants to not pay income tax for 10 years (This was another law that was rescinded.)

I think you seriously need to look at how immigration works in the U.S. Many immigrants are actually given grants by the government to start their own businesses. Grants that ordinary citizens are denied.


To compare illegal immigrants from Mexico and Central American who come to the US today to those Americans legally coming to Mexico in the 1820's is completely off-base and inaccurate. There is no comparison because those original immigrants were legal, became Mexican citizens (even if only in name) and used the land to create their own economic system and prosperity. Whereas the immigration problem in the US today is creating economic problems not reducing them. And few immigrants coming from Mexico and Central America are going through the proper legal channels to gain citizenship. The land grants given to immigrants are legal immigrants to which no one had a problem. In fact, most people welcome legal immigrants who go through the proper channels, receive a work visa, and eventually become a US citizen. I would argue that those who go through the proper channels should become citizens quicker because they actually put in the time and effort to assimilate and become Americans by following the citizenship guidelines.

The difference between Germans during WWII and Texans during the 1800s is that the most Germans did not know about the atrocities their leaders were doing.


So let me get this straight. You are so delusional about history that you actually believe the German propaganda of the late 1940's and 1950's? Anyone that has read a single book on the holocaust knows that the story out of Germany after WWII was full of holes and excuses. The fact that hundreds of thousands of Jewish people were branded with stars throughout all of Germany in the 1930's should be proof enough that Germans knew about the developing discriminations. But the fact that all of these people were eventually taken from their homes and shipped off is hard to ignore and for people to claim ignorance is impossibily idiotic. All of their homes, possessions and businesses were seized by the government and you think the every-day Germans failed to notice any of this??? Not to mention, if you have read any biographies of soldiers during WWII you will notice a repeated pattern of people who state that prior to the liberation of concentration camps, a smell of rotting flesh and death could be smelled from miles away and the German's "lack of knowledge" is nothing more than veiled ignorance.

In fact, Robert Gellately, a historian at Oxford University, conducted a widely respected survey of the German media before and during the war, concluding that there was "substantial consent and active participation of large numbers of ordinary Germans" in aspects of the Holocaust, and documenting that the sight of columns of slave laborers were common, and that the basics of the concentration camps, if not the extermination camps, were widely known. Plus. the German scholar, Peter Longerich, in a study looking at what Germans knew about the mass murders concluded that: "General information concerning the mass murder of Jews was widespread in the German population."

Anyone who is so off-base about the atrocities of the holocaust, does not deserve the respected platform of debate on other aspects of history. Read a book or two about WWII and then get back to me.

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"In 1824, the Mexican government passed a law formalizing these colonization efforts, offering land and tax exemptions to foreign settlers. Mexico hoped that these settlers would create a kind of buffer between Mexico and the United States and also deal with the hostile Indians in the region. Most of the American settlers, however, saw their Mexican citizenship as a mere formality and still considered themselves to be Americans."

The point here is that yes, they didn't behave like Mexicans, but alas, they were indeed granted citizenship under the new government. By 1830 the Mexican Government realized that was a mistake and began to rescind a lot of the laws that enabled Americans to settle in the territory. The unsettled land that had been considered hostile and lacking in resources now had flourishing colonies due to these immigrants who had become legal citizens. The Mexican Constitution of 1824 was nearly identical to the US Constitution (In fact it was based on the US Constitution) which combined with the fact that land had become more expensive in the US, many Americans felt comfortable in Texas because of the similarities to US law, the relaxed citizenship, cheaper land, and the original deal that allowed immigrants to not pay income tax for 10 years (This was another law that was rescinded.)


I found a different quote from the latinamerican history section of about.com:

http://latinamericanhistory.about.com/od/TexasIndependence/p/The-Texas-Revolution.htm

Mexico reluctantly allowed Americans to settle there, provided they became Mexican citizens and converted to Catholicism. Many took advantage of colonization projects, such as the one led by Stephen F. Austin, while many more simply came to Texas and squatted on vacant land.


So yes, you are right. There were Texans who were citizens. But many were squatters. The article actually says "many more simply came to Texas and squatted on land". It appears that some were citizens but the vast majority were not.

So let me get this straight. You are so delusional about history that you actually believe the German propaganda of the late 1940's and 1950's? Anyone that has read a single book on the holocaust knows that the story out of Germany after WWII was full of holes and excuses. The fact that hundreds of thousands of Jewish people were branded with stars throughout all of Germany in the 1930's should be proof enough that Germans knew about the developing discriminations. But the fact that all of these people were eventually taken from their homes and shipped off is hard to ignore and for people to claim ignorance is impossibily idiotic. All of their homes, possessions and businesses were seized by the government and you think the every-day Germans failed to notice any of this??? Not to mention, if you have read any biographies of soldiers during WWII you will notice a repeated pattern of people who state that prior to the liberation of concentration camps, a smell of rotting flesh and death could be smelled from miles away and the German's "lack of knowledge" is nothing more than veiled ignorance.

In fact, Robert Gellately, a historian at Oxford University, conducted a widely respected survey of the German media before and during the war, concluding that there was "substantial consent and active participation of large numbers of ordinary Germans" in aspects of the Holocaust, and documenting that the sight of columns of slave laborers were common, and that the basics of the concentration camps, if not the extermination camps, were widely known. Plus. the German scholar, Peter Longerich, in a study looking at what Germans knew about the mass murders concluded that: "General information concerning the mass murder of Jews was widespread in the German population."


This quote made me raise my eyebrow:

"The fact that hundreds of thousands of Jewish people were branded with stars throughout all of Germany in the 1930's should be proof enough that Germans knew about the developing discriminations."

Do you not remember that the United States was a country that branded people based on their race to segregation for around a decade? Why do you condemn ordinary Germans for condoning discrimination, while overlooking the discrimination by Americans? This is what I've been saying over and over: Texans condoned slavery, and, after that was abolished, segregation. Yet you consider them heroic, freedom fighters. Now you're condemning Germans for condoning discrimination. Hypocrisy at it's finest.

"But the fact that all of these people were eventually taken from their homes and shipped off is hard to ignore and for people to claim ignorance is impossibily idiotic."

And what do you have to say about Americans who claim ignorant of concentration camps of Japanese-Americans? Were they also "impossibly idiotic" when they didn't stand up for their fellow citizens wo were shipped off? Americans had little knowledge of what went on in those concentration camps (in fact, most still have little knowledge). In the same manner, Germans had little knowledge of what went on in those concentration camps. I don't know who this Robert Gellately is. I can't find anything that he's an Oxford educated professor. Can you link me a source to what he said regarding German complicity?


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Your wheels are spinning in circles and yet you insist on continuing this fight. Let's recap.

You believe racists can't be heroic and that the Texans were only fighting for freedom if someone has a twisted view of history.

I disagree and say moral beliefs of a previous era do not take away from valor and that any person can and should be allowed to fight a cause they believe in.

You state that since the Texans weren't citizens that they had no rights

I disagree and cite that many were citizens.

You contend that many more were not citizens.

I believe as I do in any political contest, that the rights of any and all citizens should not be infringed, even if those citizens are new. Yes, some fighting the battle were indeed squatters, but many (Austin and Houston included) were Mexican citizens at the time of the Revolution. The country had undergone many goverments in the previous 25 years and if a person has been a citizen for 5 years or 50, it should not matter. For Mexico to offer land, citizenship, and opportunity and then change their mind once land is settled and colonized is ridiculous and I support and applaud anyone in any country that stands up against tyranny. The Mexican government during the Texas revolution was tyrannic and that is why other provinces in Mexico rebelled as well. Unfortunately for those other provinces, many did not succeed.

You state that I "seriously need to look at how immigration works in the U.S. Many immigrants are actually given grants by the government to start their own businesses. Grants that ordinary citizens are denied."

I reply that, "To compare illegal immigrants from Mexico and Central American who come to the US today to those Americans legally coming to Mexico in the 1820's is completely off-base and inaccurate. There is no comparison because those original immigrants were legal, became Mexican citizens (even if only in name) and used the land to create their own economic system and prosperity. Whereas the immigration problem in the US today is creating economic problems not reducing them. And few immigrants coming from Mexico and Central America are going through the proper legal channels to gain citizenship. The land grants given to immigrants are legal immigrants to which no one had a problem. In fact, most people welcome legal immigrants who go through the proper channels, receive a work visa, and eventually become a US citizen. I would argue that those who go through the proper channels should become citizens quicker because they actually put in the time and effort to assimilate and become Americans by following the citizenship guidelines."

You have not rebuttaled

I state that, despite the fact of slavery, an entire era of people should not be condemned because of a moral belief of the time. I give an example and say, "The Nazi's were surely awful, but I doubt you would say that anyone from Germany during WWII was an evil person, simply because the people in control had certain beliefs and viewpoints."

You counter and say, "The difference between Germans during WWII and Texans during the 1800s is that the most Germans did not know about the atrocities their leaders were doing."

I cite several courses and clearly demonstrate beyond a reasonable doubt that the Germans did in fact know and willingly allowed the misdeeds to occur during WWII. (Regarding Gellately, I cited directly from his book in which I own and have read, along with a dozen+ other books on WWII. If you want some info on him do a quick google search. You won't find all of his credits, but you should find enough to know he is an expert in WWII history)

Instead of galvanizing the Germans as you did previously stating that they did not know better, this time you counter that American's were just as bad. This doesn't help your point that Germans are different from the Texans, merely in furthers my cause. Then you cite further atrocities in other areas by stating that Americans branded people by race. So did the Germans You state that Americans sent people off to camps. Not death camps, and as bad as they were, the basis of the camps was due to fear of foreign spies. In this day and age it does sound horrible, but it is a little different to temporarily hold a person because of suspicion of treason versus murdering someone because of their religion. Then you ask a question, "Were Americans impossibly idiotic when they didn't stand up for their fellow citizens? Yes.

But, ultimately you are missing the contradiction. You condemn the Texans as a whole for slavery, but dismiss the failings of German society in WWII. Hitler gave large speeches about eliminating Jews from society, and yet you claim that WWII era Germans should be absolved while 1830's Texans are morally inferior?

I believe that the Texans, the Americans of WWII, and the Germans of WWII should NOT all be condemned for their beliefs. The Texans may have believed in slavery, but their ultimate goal was a free society (which Santa Anna's Military dictatorship threatened) The Americans of WWII were blatantly simple-minded, but in times of War even sane people do crazy things (Alien & Sedition Act is a prime example) And the Germans, for all of their "Jew-hating" philosophy, were swept up by a leadership that was pulling them out of the worst depression in history and back to the top of the world economic, political and militarial summits. Groupthought had stirred them, and success (even by immoral means) will often override the negative components of a people.

But most importantly, how can we condemn previous eras moral beliefs when we as a society continue to change the rules on what is and is not moral? I don't know where you are from, but suppose in 200 years people look back at your country in this era and say, "Those people had a great stand for a cause, but they ate more meat per capita than any country in the world. As everyone in 2213 knows, eating meat is only done by morally bankrupt people."

Sounds crazy, right? I mean humans have been eating meat for thousands of years. However, in the 1830's, people had already been using slavery for thousands of years.

In conclusion, it is easy to condemn immoral behavior in hindsight, but what does it prove? Your contention that those who gave their lives at the Alamo have a less respectable cause because freedom of slavery was one of hundreds of different freedoms they fought for is amazingly simpleminded. If all we learn from the Alamo is that people from the south in the 1830's were racist, then we have missed a great deal of history and we will surely be doomed to repeat it again.

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You believe racists can't be heroic and that the Texans were only fighting for freedom if someone has a twisted view of history.

I disagree and say moral beliefs of a previous era do not take away from valor and that any person can and should be allowed to fight a cause they believe in.


Hmm, this quote gives me pause, "moral beliefs of a previous era do not take away from valor and that any person can and should be allowed to fight a cause they believe in."

I believe the Mexican cause to keep their country from succeeding was a cause full of valor. The "Texas Revolution" had no valor.

You state that since the Texans weren't citizens that they had no rights

I disagree and cite that many were citizens.

You contend that many more were not citizens.

I believe as I do in any political contest, that the rights of any and all citizens should not be infringed, even if those citizens are new. Yes, some fighting the battle were indeed squatters, but many (Austin and Houston included) were Mexican citizens at the time of the Revolution. The country had undergone many goverments in the previous 25 years and if a person has been a citizen for 5 years or 50, it should not matter. For Mexico to offer land, citizenship, and opportunity and then change their mind once land is settled and colonized is ridiculous and I support and applaud anyone in any country that stands up against tyranny. The Mexican government during the Texas revolution was tyrannic and that is why other provinces in Mexico rebelled as well. Unfortunately for those other provinces, many did not succeed.


You cite that many were citizens? Since you obviously believe you have more knowledge than me, can you give me facts proving that the majority of Texans were citizens?

Also, you state that, "I support and applaud anyone in any country that stands up against tyranny". Yet you continue to support Texans who instituted tyranny themselves in the form of slavery and segregation. Nice.

You state that I "seriously need to look at how immigration works in the U.S. Many immigrants are actually given grants by the government to start their own businesses. Grants that ordinary citizens are denied."

I reply that, "To compare illegal immigrants from Mexico and Central American who come to the US today to those Americans legally coming to Mexico in the 1820's is completely off-base and inaccurate. There is no comparison because those original immigrants were legal, became Mexican citizens (even if only in name) and used the land to create their own economic system and prosperity. Whereas the immigration problem in the US today is creating economic problems not reducing them. And few immigrants coming from Mexico and Central America are going through the proper legal channels to gain citizenship. The land grants given to immigrants are legal immigrants to which no one had a problem. In fact, most people welcome legal immigrants who go through the proper channels, receive a work visa, and eventually become a US citizen. I would argue that those who go through the proper channels should become citizens quicker because they actually put in the time and effort to assimilate and become Americans by following the citizenship guidelines."


I'm comparing immigration from Mexico and Central America of today with the immigrant Texans of the 1800s because, much like the Texans, the majority of immigrants from Mexico and Central America are illegal.

You say the Mexican gov't at the time was tyrannical to the Texans. The Mexican gov't was despotic from the start. When the Texans first started immigrating, the Mexican gov't was an aristocratic monarchy. After that, the gov't was still despotic. The Texans went to Mexico with full knowledge that the Mexican gov't was unstable and tyrannical. So it was idiotic for them to revolt as if they were shocked by the tyranny of the Mexican gov't. That would be like immigrating to Russia and be surprised by the fact that the gov't infringes on the rights of its citizens.

You have not rebuttaled

I state that, despite the fact of slavery, an entire era of people should not be condemned because of a moral belief of the time. I give an example and say, "The Nazi's were surely awful, but I doubt you would say that anyone from Germany during WWII was an evil person, simply because the people in control had certain beliefs and viewpoints."

You counter and say, "The difference between Germans during WWII and Texans during the 1800s is that the most Germans did not know about the atrocities their leaders were doing."

I cite several courses and clearly demonstrate beyond a reasonable doubt that the Germans did in fact know and willingly allowed the misdeeds to occur during WWII. (Regarding Gellately, I cited directly from his book in which I own and have read, along with a dozen+ other books on WWII. If you want some info on him do a quick google search. You won't find all of his credits, but you should find enough to know he is an expert in WWII history)

You did not cite several "courses". You cited one guy you misrepresented as an Oxford professor. You have not cited anything concrete that would prove your point that Mexicans knew about the specific atrocities that were going on in concentration camps.

However, the Texans were fully aware of the atrocities of slavery and segregation as it was in their faces every day. In fact, that is the major reason for the rebellion.

Instead of galvanizing the Germans as you did previously stating that they did not know better, this time you counter that American's were just as bad. This doesn't help your point that Germans are different from the Texans, merely in furthers my cause. Then you cite further atrocities in other areas by stating that Americans branded people by race. So did the Germans You state that Americans sent people off to camps. Not death camps, and as bad as they were, the basis of the camps was due to fear of foreign spies. In this day and age it does sound horrible, but it is a little different to temporarily hold a person because of suspicion of treason versus murdering someone because of their religion. Then you ask a question, "Were Americans impossibly idiotic when they didn't stand up for their fellow citizens? Yes.

I like this quote, "Not death camps, and as bad as they were, the basis of the camps was due to fear of foreign spies. In this day and age it does sound horrible, but it is a little different to temporarily hold a person because of suspicion of treason versus murdering someone because of their religion."

Stephen Austin was jailed or "temporarily held" for suspicion of treason. Whether you agree with it or not, succeeding is considered treason by every gov't on Earth. So if the Mexicans had jailed Texans for suspicion of treason, they wouldn't be doing horrible things, but, in your own words, they'd be doing something "a little different".

But, ultimately you are missing the contradiction. You condemn the Texans as a whole for slavery, but dismiss the failings of German society in WWII. Hitler gave large speeches about eliminating Jews from society, and yet you claim that WWII era Germans should be absolved while 1830's Texans are morally inferior?

I never said the Germans should be absolved. I said the Germans did not see the atrocities taking place. Texans, on the other hand, saw it every day. That is where the Germans and Texans differ.

I believe that the Texans, the Americans of WWII, and the Germans of WWII should NOT all be condemned for their beliefs. The Texans may have believed in slavery, but their ultimate goal was a free society (which Santa Anna's Military dictatorship threatened)

Their ultimate goal was a free society? Then why did they keep slavery and segregation?

The Americans of WWII were blatantly simple-minded, but in times of War even sane people do crazy things (Alien & Sedition Act is a prime example) And the Germans, for all of their "Jew-hating" philosophy, were swept up by a leadership that was pulling them out of the worst depression in history and back to the top of the world economic, political and militarial summits. Groupthought had stirred them, and success (even by immoral means) will often override the negative components of a people.

This is another thing where we keep butting heads: you keep equating Nazis with Germans. Not all Germans were Nazis. And not all Nazis were Germans. Hitler was an Austrian, in fact.

You also make naive comments like this, "And the Germans, for all of their "Jew-hating" philosophy, were swept up by a leadership that was pulling them out of the worst depression in history and back to the top of the world economic, political and militarial summits. Groupthought had stirred them, and success (even by immoral means) will often override the negative components of a people."

Despite the fact that Hitler came to power "democratically", there were a ton of people who opposed him before and during his dictatorship. Not just Jews, but also union organizers, socialists, homosexuals, Roma, anarchists, monarchists, etc. The Nazis used extreme violence and intimidation to gain and hold power over the German population. Your quote makes it seem as if the vast majority of Germans were in favor of nazism. How can a guy who claims to read a lot about the Holocaust make such ill-informed statements?

But most importantly, how can we condemn previous eras moral beliefs when we as a society continue to change the rules on what is and is not moral? I don't know where you are from, but suppose in 200 years people look back at your country in this era and say, "Those people had a great stand for a cause, but they ate more meat per capita than any country in the world. As everyone in 2213 knows, eating meat is only done by morally bankrupt people."

Sounds crazy, right? I mean humans have been eating meat for thousands of years. However, in the 1830's, people had already been using slavery for thousands of years.

People in the 1800s had the same moral beliefs regarding slavery as people do today: people back then believed it was a humiliating and violent institution. People believe the same today. Texans did not mind slavery as long as they were not the ones enslaved. That's what I've been saying. It's part of the human sociological behavior that enables people to think, "Wow. What that guy is going through is truly awful. But as long as I don't have to go through it I'm not going to make a fuss over it."

You have stated, "However, in the 1830's, people had already been using slavery for thousands of years." By the 1830's there had already been measures to abolish slavery. The British got rid of slavery in their territory around the same time Texans were revolting against Mexico. In fact, wikipedia has a list of territories, past and present, that had abolished slavery throughout the centuries:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abolition_of_slavery_timeline

Just because slavery had been around for thousands of years, doesn't mean people condoned slavery.

In conclusion, it is easy to condemn immoral behavior in hindsight, but what does it prove? Your contention that those who gave their lives at the Alamo have a less respectable cause because freedom of slavery was one of hundreds of different freedoms they fought for is amazingly simpleminded. If all we learn from the Alamo is that people from the south in the 1830's were racist, then we have missed a great deal of history and we will surely be doomed to repeat it again.
[/quote]

I've already learned a great deal from history. Thank you. I learned that this world is rull of people who will go to great lengths to apologize for violent racists and whitewash their past. The human race is doomed if those type of people are in the majority.

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Yet you continue to support Texans who instituted tyranny themselves in the form of slavery and segregation. Nice.

Yet you continue to support the Mexicans who instituted tyranny themselves in the form of a peon system in which they forced men & woman to work on haciendas, and face corporal punishment if they escaped then tried to say they were against slavery. As well as a leader who believed (by his own words, mind you) that "my people will not be fit for liberty. They do not know what it is, unenlightened as they are, a despotism is the proper government for them". Nice.

How's that hypocricy working out for ya!?




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Yet you continue to support the Mexicans who instituted tyranny themselves in the form of a peon system in which they forced men & woman to work on haciendas, and face corporal punishment if they escaped then tried to say they were against slavery. As well as a leader who believed (by his own words, mind you) that "my people will not be fit for liberty. They do not know what it is, unenlightened as they are, a despotism is the proper government for them". Nice.

How's that hypocricy working out for ya!?

Never once have I supported Mexicans who instituted tyranny. Where have I written that Mexicans were "heroes who were fighting for freedom"? Find the quote where I said that.

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You want to dismiss the reasons the Texians fought for freedom from a dictator by saying it was about slavery, yet Mexico had a slave system, and the simple fact reamins that Santa Anna was a dictator!

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You want to dismiss the reasons the Texians fought for freedom from a dictator by saying it was about slavery, yet Mexico had a slave system, and the simple fact reamins that Santa Anna was a dictator!

I asked you to provide a quote where I said "Mexicans were heroes who fought for freedom". You still haven't supplied me with one. Don't accuse me of being a hypocrite unless you can provide quotes where I said Mexicans were freedom fighters.

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You said this.

You cite that many were citizens? Since you obviously believe you have more knowledge than me, can you give me facts proving that the majority of Texans were citizens?

I gave a link and highlighted a paragraph that said in part:
During the next decade men like Stephen Austin brought more than 25,000 people to Texas, most of them Americans… these emigrants legally became Mexican citizens.

You responded.
mjlangenbru, I asked you to give me facts supporting your assertion that the majority of Texans during the uprising were citizens. You still have not done so.


Clearly you did not ask that. You asked me to cite that quote, “many were citizens.” I did so. Now you raise a new question that I will try to answer that as well.

http://www.let.rug.nl/usa/essays/1801-1900/anglo-american-colonization-in-texas/texas-1821-1836.php

“The total population on the eve of the Texas revolution, in 1835, was about 35,000 people.”

Since you are undoubtedly incapable of researching such facts, I will also do the math for you. 25,000 of 35,000 is 71%, which is a majority. Now we have established that a majority of Texas in 1835, just prior to the Revolution were legalized Mexican citizens from the United States.

So, on to the next step, the “assertion that the majority of Texans during the uprising were citizens.”

Alamo historian and curator Bruce Winders says that a large part of the Alamo story has been forgotten. He says, “you have to understand now that this was a Mexican civil war, that the Tejanos were very much part of it, that the American colonists were Mexican citizens.”

http://www.mysanantonio.com/alamo/article/Tejanos-role-overlooked-at-the-Alamo-1044593.php#ixzz2L8CUF5Aj

The article also states, “The relationship between the two groups was complicated: many Tejanos, like the American settlers, disapproved of the centralist takeover of the Mexican federal government that sought to curb the political power of the individual Mexican states.”

Also, Jim Bowie, Sam Houston, and Stephen Austin were all Mexican citizens. That means 3 of the big 4 names on the Texans side were Mexican citizens (Davy Crockett was not a citizen, but he left for Texas once it became obvious a revolution was imminent. In many ways you could say his participation is more in accordance to Lafayette in the American Revolution or someone coming to another’s aid to support a cause, not to create a cause.)

If that is not acceptable to you, then I ask you to show me proof that the majority were not citizens.

So you say the Roman Republic was immoral for its use of slavery. Then, by your argument, the Texas Revolution should be considered an immoral rebellion because it was an uprising based on keeping slavery as an institution.


Wrong. You are the one that claims the rebellion was based on keeping slavery. I contend that the rebellion occurred because of the removal of Texan rights and the consolidation of government once Santa Anna tore up the Mexican Constitution and declared himself dictator.

Thomas Jefferson actually wanted to abolish the institution of slavery and remained morally conflicted over it… I believe Jefferson was a tyrant.


I believe your idiocy speaks for itself.

I said, From the early 1820's to the mid 1830's some 25,000 Americans moved to Texas and became Mexican citizens. However, only about 3,000 Spanish-Mexicans lived in the Territory.

You responded,
You're speculating that 5 out of 6 Texans were legal Mexican citizens. How am I supposed to debate your speculation?


It wasn’t speculation. If you need a math lesson, 3,000 of 28,000 is less than 11% or roughly 1 in 9. I nudged the numbers in your favor and instead of saying 8 in 9 were American-born Mexican citizens, I said 5 in 6.

By the way, those quotes from Hitler's speeches in no way prove that the Germans knew about the atrocities.

What about the other sources I listed? What about soldier testimony? What about the books written by many people and the anonymous surveys that were taken? Also, if speeches weren’t proof, how about the laws that Germany implemented prior to WWII that limited and then erased the rights of previously equal citizens. Here are a few:

1933
March 31
Decree of the Berlin city commissioner for health suspends Jewish doctors from the city’s charity services.
April 7
Law for the Reestablishment of the Professional Civil Service removes Jews from government service.
April 7
Law on the Admission to the Legal Profession forbids the admission of Jews to the bar.
April 25
Law against Overcrowding in Schools and Universities limits the number of Jewish students in public schools.
July 14
De-Naturalization Law revokes the citizenship of naturalized Jews and “undesirables.”
October 4
Law on Editors bans Jews from editorial posts.
1935
May 21
Army law expels Jewish officers from the army.
September 15
Nazi leaders announce the Nuremberg Laws.
1936
January 11
Executive Order on the Reich Tax Law forbids Jews to serve as tax-consultants.
April 3
Reich Veterinarians Law expels Jews from the veterinary profession.
October 15
Reich Ministry of Education bans Jewish teachers from public schools.
1937
April 9
The Mayor of Berlin orders public schools not to admit Jewish children until further notice.
1938
January 5
Law on the Alteration of Family and Personal Names forbids Jews from changing their names.
February 5
Law on the Profession of Auctioneer excludes Jews from this occupation.
March 18
The Gun Law excludes Jewish gun merchants.
April 22
Decree against the Camouflage of Jewish Firms forbids changing the names of Jewish-owned businesses.
April 26
Order for the Disclosure of Jewish Assets requires Jews to report all property in excess of 5,000 reichsmarks.
July 11
Reich Ministry of the Interior bans Jews from health spas.
August 17
Executive Order on the Law on the Alteration of Family and Personal Names requires Jews to adopt an additional name: "Sara” for women and “Israel” for men.
October 3
Decree on the Confiscation of Jewish Property regulates the transfer of assets from Jews to non-Jewish Germans.
October 5
The Reich Interior Ministry invalidates all German passports held by Jews. Jews must surrender their old passports, which will become valid only after the letter “J” had been stamped on them.
November 12
Decree on the Exclusion of Jews from German Economic Life closes all Jewish-owned businesses.
November 15
Reich Ministry of Education expels all Jewish children from public schools.
November 28
Reich Ministry of Interior restricts the freedom of movement of Jews.
November 29
The Reich Interior Ministry forbids Jews to keep carrier pigeons.
December 14
An Executive Order on the Law on the Organization of National Work cancels all state contracts held with Jewish-owned firms.
December 21
Law on Midwives bans all Jews from the occupation.
1939
February 21
Decree Concerning the Surrender of Precious Metals and Stones in Jewish Ownership.
August 1
The President of the German Lottery forbids the sale of lottery tickets to Jews.

http://www.ushmm.org/wlc/en/article.php?ModuleId=10007459

The funny thing is, that all of these laws were passed before things got really, really, really serious. If the Germans didn’t know something was up when Jews were no longer allowed to own businesses, had their citizenship revoked, and they became segregated from the rest of German society, you would suppose they figured something out when every Jew in the country was labeled with a large star, rounded up and shipped off into Ghettos and eventually crated into train cars like cattle without their belongings.

But no, Texans and their 5,000 slaves are so much worse. 2 million slaves in the United States in 1830, but Texans and their 5,000 are somehow, in your mind, the epitome of a slave state. Forget the fact that in 1850, a few years after Texas became a state, they were 12th in slave population behind states like Maryland!

There have been many similarly ugly speeches made by prominent men in the United States against blacks, Native Americans, Italians, latinos, Asians, etc.


Provide the quotes by American Presidents against citizens followed by a series of laws that infringe on previously equal citizens. The key term here is “previously equal.” Yes, the US has a history of slavery and segregation, but once people earn rights, they generally tend to keep them, and in no way has a series of laws been pushed through like the Nuremberg Laws and the subsequent laws that followed. Besides, I would like to hear a single quote where a US president states a people, or race is like, “bacillus infecting the life of peoples [and must be] removed.”

It's ironic how the Texans had a problem with Santa Anna openly violating the Mexican Constitution; however, they never has a problem when they openly violated the same constitution by continuing slavery (and by squatting on the land without legal right). Isn't it funny how hypocrisy works.

Again you show your ineptitude of history, so I will give you a lesson. The Mexican Constitution forbade the sale or purchase of slaves. That does not mean slavery was illegal in 1823 and 1824, but rather that it was illegal to buy more slaves or sell slaves in Mexico. You could own slaves and you could import slaves from other countries until 1830. (Ironic considering that for all their ill-practices on slavery the United States actually banned the importation of slaves earlier than Mexico in the year 1808)

Anyways, Mexico didn’t abolish slavery until 1829 (long after many of the American settlers had been invited into Texas to set up and build communities.) Because of this, the government granted Texas an exception to allow slavery until 1830. At this point, many converted their slaves into indentured servants to circumvent the law.

In many ways, the slave law was not the driving force, but rather one law in a long line of laws that had been rescinded. Again, the real driving force of the revolution was the seizing of powers by Santa Anna 5 years later.

You keep trying to make it seem as if the Nazis came to power with the adoring blessing of the majority of the German voting population.


And you try to contend that all of Germany was an innocent group of frightened children. My point was that there was opposition and support. Read some real books on the issue, thousands upon thousands of testimonials from Germans talk about how they were taken up by the enthusiasm of the Nazis and their striving to return Germany to predominance. You must remember that when I talk about economic and political environment of the time, I am not simply talking about the depression, but I am also talking about the fact that Germany was left in shambles after WWI and forced to pay to rebuild all of the countries on the winning side. Many Germans were excited for any group that pulled them back to the top, regardless of idealogy.

I pointed out the extremely violence the Nazis used in order to gain power. The italicized quotes you posted pointed this out too. Violence played a huge, huge hand in letting the Nazis gain power.


Agreed. In fact, I never said otherwise. Again though, that does not mean they didn’t have any support and that does not mean that all Germans were innocent.

People in the 1800s had the same moral beliefs regarding slavery as people do today: people back then believed it was a humiliating and violent institution.

Let’s try this again from a different approach. You cited history of slavery, so I will use your source.

Slavery predates written history.
In ancient Rome 30 to 40% of the population was enslaved.
In the middle ages slavery of conquered peoples was common.
The Germans in WWII used as many as 6 million people for slave labor.
The Soviet Union used somewhere between 10-20 million slaves working in gulags.
Today slavery is no longer legal anywhere in the world.

So to recap,
People in the 1800s had the same moral beliefs regarding slavery as people do today: people back then believed it was a humiliating and violent institution.


Yet, the Germans and the Soviets enslaved somewhere between 15-25 million people after the 1800’s, meanwhile today no country allows slavery. How in your mind do you come to the conclusion that people believed the same back then as they do now??? Large, powerful countries not only allowed slavery in the recent past, they pushed for it. Today, not a single country condones slavery. That is the definition of progress. If peoples belief of slavery today was the same as in the 1800’s, then by definition, some countries and vast amounts of individuals would be in favor today. That is not the case, therefore how could you conclude that people have the same beliefs today as they did then?

I love how you picked apart my quote that emphasized my point. You cut out the part where I pointed out that many gov'ts had been trying to abolish slavery for thousands of years. While the Texans were fighting to keep slavery, Great Britain was enacting legislations to get rid of it.


My point was that times have changed. You seem to believe that to be untrue when you say,
People in the 1800s had the same moral beliefs regarding slavery as people do today: people back then believed it was a humiliating and violent institution.


But to indulge you, yes governments were fighting to get rid of it. If you recall the US underwent a similar struggle in the 1800’s.

You also overlooked my statement, "Do you think if someone had enslaved the slave owners, the slave owners wouldn't believe it was a violent and humiliating thing?"

The slave owners believed that the slaves were less than human. They viewed them closer to cattle than to human, so in their mind it was not violent and humiliating for slaves and they probably wouldn’t even consider the possibility of being enslaved themselves. Again, this shows the vastly different mindset of today to some of the people in the 1800’s. To clarify, that doesn’t mean all people thought that way. My point being let’s say 10% thought that way. Today that number is probably less than 1%. Therefore the cumulative moral beliefs have changed and are not the same as in the 1800’s. In individual cases, sure it’s the same, but that’s not a fair argument. The totality of belief is the argument here.

And here's where you keep messing up what I am saying: you cannot be a freedom fighter and fight for the institution of segregation and slavery at the same time. It is a extreme contradiction. You are the one here who appears to be missing a great deal of history and is doomed to repeat it.

Wrong. All throughout history imperfect people have done great things. There is no perfect cause. Under your belief the American Revolution, the French & Indian War, the American Civil War, the French Revolution, WWII, the independence of India, etc. are all flawed. In fact, under your criteria I dare you to name a single cause that was perfect.

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I ask you to show me proof that the majority were not citizens.

I cannot give you proof that the majority were not citizens. I think we've both hit a brick wall. I do not have any documented evidence that supports my assertion that the majority of Texas rebels were not citizens. Nor do you have any proof that the majority were Mexican citizens. Thus, we are both wrong for making our claims. Unfortunately, your claim that the majority of Texas rebels were citizens is what is used by many high ranking historians as well; it's also put forth in many major history books in school. That's what makes your claim even worse than mine. People haven't given any proof that the majority were citizens, yet they are trying to sell it as fact. This is the shameful act of skewering history I was originally talking about.

I said, "So you say the Roman Republic was immoral for its use of slavery. Then, by your argument, the Texas Revolution should be considered an immoral rebellion because it was an uprising based on keeping slavery as an institution."

You said, "Wrong. You are the one that claims the rebellion was based on keeping slavery. I contend that the rebellion occurred because of the removal of Texan rights and the consolidation of government once Santa Anna tore up the Mexican Constitution and declared himself dictator."

So are you saying that slavery had little to no reason for why the Texans rebelled? If so, I think you need to read history more. Plus, I will say this: since you say that the Roman Republic was immoral for its use of slavery, you would also agree that Texas and the rest of the South was immoral for its use of slavery.

What about the other sources I listed? What about soldier testimony? What about the books written by many people and the anonymous surveys that were taken? Also, if speeches weren’t proof, how about the laws that Germany implemented prior to WWII that limited and then erased the rights of previously equal citizens.

The funny thing is, that all of these laws were passed before things got really, really, really serious.

You keep missing what I am saying. Yes, some Germans witnessed with their own eyes and committed the atrocities. However, the vast majority of Germans only had scant idea what was happening. They may have had people telling them rumors and such, but they did not witness the brutality with their own eyes. However, the Texans witnessed slavery with their own eyes on a daily basis. That's what makes the Texans worse.

Regarding the soldiers: yes, some took part in the extermination of Jews. However, the vast majority of soldiers were used for fighting enemy soldiers. They didn't have time to take regular part in the extermination of Jews. The SS was used for the extermination of Jews mainly, while the soldiers fought on the battlefield.

Regarding your book, "What We Knew" by Eric Johnson, I'd have to say it is flawed. For instance, he didn't use any sources during the Nazi era to prove his point that the mass majority of Germans were well aware of the extermination of Jews. He could have searched diaries, newspaper reports, journals, letters, transcripts of conversations, etc. to help in his research. However, he didn't. He relied on an anonymous survey to prove his point. Don't you think it's flawed not to use first hand documents from that era to prove his point, but instead to rely on an anonymous survey over half a century later?

In its own right, an anonymous survey is flawed. But the flaw of his survey increases when you realize he only conducted it in four cities (Dresden, Cologne; Krefeld; and Berlin; what about Munich, the heart of Nazi power--no survey there?). Another flaw, he doesn't say how many people he sent the survey to. There isn't any number listings. He could have easily sent it to only 25 people. I do not know.

I have the book beside me right now. There is so much about this "research" he conducted that is so painfully amateurish that I'm tempted to throw it in the trash if it were not for the fact that this is a library book.

And you try to contend that all of Germany was an innocent group of frightened children. My point was that there was opposition and support. Read some real books on the issue, thousands upon thousands of testimonials from Germans talk about how they were taken up by the enthusiasm of the Nazis and their striving to return Germany to predominance. You must remember that when I talk about economic and political environment of the time, I am not simply talking about the depression, but I am also talking about the fact that Germany was left in shambles after WWI and forced to pay to rebuild all of the countries on the winning side. Many Germans were excited for any group that pulled them back to the top, regardless of idealogy.


I never said, " all of Germany was an innocent group of frightened children." My argument is that without violence the Nazis would never have been able to gain control of Germany. I agree that Germany had support. But I disagree with your way of downplaying the violence the Nazis used to control society. I don't know how a person who claims to know so much about German history after WWI pretend as if violence wasn't the Nazis strongest tool for gaining control.

I said, "People in the 1800s had the same moral beliefs regarding slavery as people do today: people back then believed it was a humiliating and violent institution. "

You said, "Yet, the Germans and the Soviets enslaved somewhere between 15-25 million people after the 1800’s, meanwhile today no country allows slavery. How in your mind do you come to the conclusion that people believed the same back then as they do now??? Large, powerful countries not only allowed slavery in the recent past, they pushed for it. Today, not a single country condones slavery. That is the definition of progress. If peoples belief of slavery today was the same as in the 1800’s, then by definition, some countries and vast amounts of individuals would be in favor today. That is not the case, therefore how could you conclude that people have the same beliefs today as they did then?"
I am going to point this out once more for you to understand. Please do not overlook it this time: At around the time Texan Rebellion was happening (where a key issue was keeping slavery) Great Britain was abolishing slavery within all their lands.

Your argument that Texans didn't think slavery was wrong because they had different beliefs back then is utterly false. People did indeed believe the same way about slavery back then that we do today. The fact that so many countries were trying to get rid of it, as well as the strong abolitionist movement around the world proves this.

When I am talking about the issue of slavery, I am not talking about slavery during ancient Rome or the Middle Ages. I am talking about slavery during the 1830s. Stop trying to deflect what I am saying.


But no, Texans and their 5,000 slaves are so much worse. 2 million slaves in the United States in 1830, but Texans and their 5,000 are somehow, in your mind, the epitome of a slave state. Forget the fact that in 1850, a few years after Texas became a state, they were 12th in slave population behind states like Maryland!


Two things: first, I never once said the Texans are the epitome of a slave state. Find me the quote where I said this. Second, in my first post, I stated that the quantity of slaves owned did not matter. Here is my original post that started this discussion:

Just by reading the comments in this thread you realize how history is skewered shamelessly. People have been saying, "Only a few owned slaves" or "There weren't that many slaves". And they are basically downplaying the role slavery played on Texas society. Whether it was 100 slaves or 1 million slaves in Texas (and the South) the key issue here is that there were people enslaved against their will.

The key issue here is that slavery existed. Even if a minority owned slaves, the vast majority condoned slavery. Texas whined about Mexico and later the U.S. government trampling on their rights while ignoring the rights of slaves. Hypocrisy at its finest. You guys can say these "brave men who died at the Alamo were fighting for freedom". But the fact is they did not care for the freedom of enslaves blacks. And when Texas became part of the United States, they segregated the Mexicans who had been living on that land for years to a marginalized existence. Then after the U.S. Civil War was over these Texans instituted segregation to the fullest extent.

These Texans were only fighting for freedom if you have a twisted view of freedom and history.

Here's something you don't understand: slavery was, if not the key, then one of the key issues for the Texas Rebellion. Around 30 yrs later, in the 1860s, slavery was again a major issue for an even bloodier war. After the war, Texans implemented segregation to the fullest extent. Then during the 1960s, around 100 yrs after the American Civil War ended, Texans opposed the Civil Rights Movement. Despite the fact that Texans fought two wars where their "rights" to keep slaves was a key issue, implemented segregation, and fought Civil Rights, you still consider Texans freedom fighters. This is what I mean when I say people have a twisted view of history and freedom.

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I cannot give you proof that the majority were not citizens. I think we've both hit a brick wall. I do not have any documented evidence that supports my assertion that the majority of Texas rebels were not citizens. Nor do you have any proof that the majority were Mexican citizens. Thus, we are both wrong for making our claims. Unfortunately, your claim that the majority of Texas rebels were citizens is what is used by many high ranking historians... [and] major history books in school. That's what makes your claim even worse than mine. People haven't given any proof that the majority were citizens, yet they are trying to sell it as fact. This is the shameful act of skewering history I was originally talking about.


Don't you see the trap you are falling into? You acknowledge that "many high ranking historians" agree with me and all of the information I have supplied backs that information. (3 of the 4 major characters at the Alamo were legal Mexican residents, the 4th came to Texas only after the revolution started, not before.) Also, I have shown that some 25,000 to 30,000 Americans became legalized Mexicans in Texas before the revolution began. If there were 35,000 people on the Texan census prior to the revolution it goes without saying that many would be Mexican citizens. Furthermore, when discussing the battle of the Alamo in particular

"At the time of the battle, as many as eighty of the Alamo defenders were actually documented residents of Texas, but others had traveled to the fort from various states, volunteering their services for the revolution."

The reason no one is sure on the percentage is that many people came from all over to help the revolution. If you go by birthplace of the roughly 189 defenders who fought at the Alamo, 80+ were documented Mexican citizens, 32 were born in Europe (mostly Ireland, England, & Scotland) and another 37 were from Northern states such as New York, Pennsylanvia, etc. In addition, the birth places of 28 individuals are unknown. That is the reason no historian can say definitively how many of the rebels were Mexican citizens, because when many were killed their names, birthplaces, history, etc. were forgetten.

Thus, when historians come to the same conclusion as I have based on the numbers available, they are not doing so out of ignorance, but rather they are using the preponderance of evidence that is available. Whereas you have zero evidence and are using some as-of-now unknown bias in debasing historial fact with your revisionist theology.

So are you saying that slavery had little to no reason for why the Texans rebelled? If so, I think you need to read history more.


I would compare the slavery law to the stamp-tax of the American Revolution. It was merely one piece of a long line of things that pushed the Texans into rebellion. If Santa Anna hadn't discarded the constitution, continued the takeaway of previously furbished rights and declared himself dictator, it is quite evident revolution would not have occurred. Let's not forget that 5 years after slavery was abolished Stephen Austin went to Mexico City with the support of many Texans and tried to have Texas become its own Mexican State and with it end the rebellion threats. He was then jailed for a year and a half and came back to Texas a changed man who now believed revolution was necessary.

since you say that the Roman Republic was immoral for its use of slavery, you would also agree that Texas and the rest of the South was immoral for its use of slavery.

Yes.

You keep missing what I am saying. Yes, some Germans witnessed with their own eyes and committed the atrocities. However, the vast majority of Germans only had scant idea what was happening. They may have had people telling them rumors and such, but they did not witness the brutality with their own eyes. However, the Texans witnessed slavery with their own eyes on a daily basis. That's what makes the Texans worse.


So if you hear rumors that your neighbor is murdering people in his basement, and you see a friend you have known for years being taken from his home and forced into your neighbors basement and later you smell burning flesh. And you do nothing... are you innocent?

In case you are wondering, many people have a law regarding such a thing. It is called being an accessory to murder. Any German who watched Jewish people being dragged from their houses and stuffed on trains and then heard rumors of Jews being killed and burned and then did nothing about it, is in effect an accesory to genocide.

Also,

the vast majority of Germans only had scant idea what was happening
So let me get this straight, when I say based on historical evidence that the "vast majority of the rebels were Mexican citizens" you claim I don't have enough proof and history got it wrong. And when I show you a book and several sources that document surveys, eye-witnesses, and soldier accounts showing proof that millions of Germans knew of the atrocities you counter with,
the vast majority of Germans only had scant idea what was happening
Do you see the hypocrisy? We both used the same argument, except mine was based on the facts and evidence available while yours was purely conjecture. You can't dismiss my statement for not having enough proof when I have been the only one who has provided any proof, and then counter in a different argument based on nothing more than your made up revisionist beliefs on history.

Regarding the soldiers: yes, some took part in the extermination of Jews. However, the vast majority of soldiers were used for fighting enemy soldiers. They didn't have time to take regular part in the extermination of Jews. The SS was used for the extermination of Jews mainly, while the soldiers fought on the battlefield.

Never said anything contrary on this subject. I am not sure why you brought this up.

Regarding your book, "What We Knew" by Eric Johnson, I'd have to say it is flawed. For instance, he didn't use any sources during the Nazi era to prove his point that the mass majority of Germans were well aware of the extermination of Jews. He could have searched diaries, newspaper reports, journals, letters, transcripts of conversations, etc. to help in his research. However, he didn't. He relied on an anonymous survey to prove his point. Don't you think it's flawed not to use first hand documents from that era to prove his point, but instead to rely on an anonymous survey over half a century later?

In its own right, an anonymous survey is flawed. But the flaw of his survey increases when you realize he only conducted it in four cities (Dresden, Cologne; Krefeld; and Berlin; what about Munich, the heart of Nazi power--no survey there?). Another flaw, he doesn't say how many people he sent the survey to. There isn't any number listings. He could have easily sent it to only 25 people. I do not know.

I have the book beside me right now. There is so much about this "research" he conducted that is so painfully amateurish that I'm tempted to throw it in the trash if it were not for the fact that this is a library book.


Unlike you, I won't refute your claims with rhetoric and conjecture, but instead I will supply more resources for you to consider.

"Hitler's Willing Executioners" by Daniel Goldhagen
"Backing Hitler" by Robert Gellately

Here is a quote from a Guardian article discussing Gellately's book:
"Based on the first systematic analysis by a historian of surviving German newspaper and magazine archives since 1933, the year Hitler became chancellor. The survey took hundreds of hours and yielded dozens of folders of photocopies, many of them from the 24 main newspapers and magazines of the period.
Its results... destroy the claim - generally made by Germans after Berlin fell in 1945 and accepted by most historians - that they did not know about camp atrocities. He concludes by indicating that the only thing many Germans may not have known about was the use of industrial-scale gas chambers because, unusually, no media reports were allowed of this "final solution". However, by the end of the war camps were all over the country and many Germans worked in them.

And check out this link
http://www.guardian.co.uk/uk/2001/feb/17/johnezard

Since I continue to supply sources, please provide links, articles, books, anything rather than replying with more tripe and a babbling rant about what you didn't like. I give sources and cite sources, you give opinion and cite it as fact. If there is any shread of proof you should not have a problem.

My argument is that without violence the Nazis would never have been able to gain control of Germany. I agree that Germany had support. But I disagree with your way of downplaying the violence the Nazis used to control society. I don't know how a person who claims to know so much about German history after WWI pretend as if violence wasn't the Nazis strongest tool for gaining control.


You must have missed something. Because a few days ago when you said:
Violence played a huge, huge hand in letting the Nazis gain power.


I responded:
Agreed. In fact, I never said otherwise. Again though, that does not mean they didn’t have any support and that does not mean that all Germans were innocent.

You seem to be so caught up in getting your point across that you miss the things we agree upon.

I am going to point this out once more for you to understand. Please do not overlook it this time: At around the time Texan Rebellion was happening (where a key issue was keeping slavery) Great Britain was abolishing slavery within all their lands.

Your argument that Texans didn't think slavery was wrong because they had different beliefs back then is utterly false. People did indeed believe the same way about slavery back then that we do today. The fact that so many countries were trying to get rid of it, as well as the strong abolitionist movement around the world proves this.

When I am talking about the issue of slavery, I am not talking about slavery during ancient Rome or the Middle Ages. I am talking about slavery during the 1830s. Stop trying to deflect what I am saying.


As Edward James Almos would say, "How do I reach these kids!"

The key thing here is overall consensus. More people today believe slavery is immoral then people in the 1830s. Therefore, by rule, the moral standard of society is higher in terms of slavery than in 1830.

Example, let's say Capernicus, Galileo and 8 random commoners from 500 years ago wrote down on paper whether or not they believed the earth was flat. At least 2 would be correct, possibly 5 or 7 or maybe even more. Regardless, I would hope that today a higher percentage would know the earth is round than in the past, just as I believe that today more people would think slavery is immoral than people from the 1830s as a whole. Again, yes, many believed it was immoral, but not all. Per your example, the English abolished it and so did the Mexicans. And yet the Texans and the Americans did not. Therefore, at least some Texans and some Americans believed it to be morally satisfactory because they believed people of color to be inferior to whites.

Here's something you don't understand: slavery was, if not the key, then one of the key issues for the Texas Rebellion. Around 30 yrs later, in the 1860s, slavery was again a major issue for an even bloodier war. After the war, Texans implemented segregation to the fullest extent. Then during the 1960s, around 100 yrs after the American Civil War ended, Texans opposed the Civil Rights Movement. Despite the fact that Texans fought two wars where their "rights" to keep slaves was a key issue, implemented segregation, and fought Civil Rights, you still consider Texans freedom fighters. This is what I mean when I say people have a twisted view of history and freedom.


All I hear is, "Yada, yada, yada... slavery is bad. Texans awful. Ignore their valor because one right of many rights infringed upon is something that is immorally reprehensible."
My patience is running thin with you because I have noticed a particular trend.
Here is how it breaks down:
You make statements with which I disagree.
I counter each statement you make and either point to facts, sources, or historical basis for clarification or in some cases use an analogy from history to showcase my point of view.
Meanwhile, you return my banter on the issues you feel are worth fighting, but dismiss many of my posts and counter-arguments when they don't meet your criteria or you attempt to belittle sources you deem inferior, thus making a straw man argument. You never source material yourself and you repeat arguments that I have already agreed upon.

Here is a checklist from my previous post.

I list as much historical fact and numbers as well as quotes by historians showing that since such a large amount of Texans were Mexican-citizens from America it goes on reason that a large amount would also lead the rebellion.
I then ask you to give proof otherwise.
You answer that you don't have proof, but either do I. You ignore the preponderance of evidence already stacked up simply because you can't find anything to help weigh down your side of the argument.

I show your contradictory statements on Jefferson.
You fail to respond.

You claim I speculate.
I prove that assertion to be false.
You fail to respond.

You claim hitler speeches weren't enough.
I ask about the soldier witnesses, the book, and the laws that were gradually enacted that each and every German citizen knew about.
You rant about how the book doesn't provide enough sources, but again, fail to source something to contradict the book or its survey other than conjecture and you never address my other sources and examples.

I make an argument that your defense of Germans is rather weak and that it is inconceivable to defend the Germans and then attack the Texans.
You ignore the comparison and talk about number not being an issue, which was beside the point in the first place.

You make a comment about American Presidents in comparison to Hitler.
I ask you to provide these famous speeches by American Leadership from the past.
Of course, you do not, because again, you have failed to reference a single source and instead make blanketed comments based on your own opinion, belief, and bias and never on fact.

You make a statement about the Texans, Santa Anna, and the Mexican constitution.
I counter and show your ignorance on the matter.
You fail to respond.

I talk about the pre-war history, the effects of post WWI-Germany, the Great Depression and Germany's desire to follow something that will raise their spirits as well as increase their political and economic status.
You choose to talk only about violence, which I already said I never disagreed upon, but rather I said was not on point with the debate we had about the culpability of the German populace.

You say the morals of the 1830s are the same as today.
I show that today very few believe it is moral, and in the 1830s perhaps few believed it was moral, but most certainly a slightly higher percentage believed it was moral.
You erroneously reference for the 3rd time the English abolishing slavery as if that proves that the concensus belief of 1830s individuals worldwide is the same as consensus belief of individuals worldwide today.

You ask how the slave owners would feel to be enslaved.
I respond that they didn't consider it because they believed slaves to be sub-human and inferior.
You fail to respond.

I state that imperfect people often do great things and that under your belief there is not a perfect cause. I ask you to name a cause you deem perfect.
You fail to respond.

reply

I believe the Mexican cause to keep their country from succeeding was a cause full of valor. The "Texas Revolution" had no valor.


Agree to disagree.

You cite that many were citizens? Since you obviously believe you have more knowledge than me, can you give me facts proving that the majority of Texans were citizens?


Sure, http://www.history.com/this-day-in-history/first-shots-of-the-texas-revolution-fired-in-the-battle-of-gonzales

Here's what it says, "As late as the 1820s, there were only about 3,000 Spanish-Mexican settlers in Texas, and Mexico City's hold on the territory was tenuous at best. After winning its own independence from Spain in 1821, Mexico welcomed large numbers of Anglo-American immigrants into Texas in the hopes they would become loyal Mexican citizens and keep the territory from falling into the hands of the United States. During the next decade men like Stephen Austin brought more than 25,000 people to Texas, most of them Americans. But while these emigrants legally became Mexican citizens, they continued to speak English, formed their own schools, and had closer trading ties to the United States than to Mexico."


Also, you state that, "I support and applaud anyone in any country that stands up against tyranny". Yet you continue to support Texans who instituted tyranny themselves in the form of slavery and segregation. Nice.


tyr·an·ny [tir-uh-nee] Show IPA

noun, plural tyr·an·nies.
1. arbitrary or unrestrained exercise of power; despotic abuse of authority.

2. the government or rule of a tyrant or absolute ruler.

3. a state ruled by a tyrant or absolute ruler.

4. oppressive or unjustly severe government on the part of any ruler.

So, tyranny in the sense that Santa Anna threw out the constitution and declared himself dictator. Example, the Roman Republic as a whole was immoral for its use of slavery, but Caligula was tyrannical. Get it? You are going to have a hard time convincing many people that Thomas Jefferson was a tyrant because he owned slaves. If you believe this, then agree to disagree.

I'm comparing immigration from Mexico and Central America of today with the immigrant Texans of the 1800s because, much like the Texans, the majority of immigrants from Mexico and Central America are illegal.


Here is where there is trouble. Based on the numbers I cited above, from the early 1820's to the mid 1830's some 25,000 Americans moved to Texas and became Mexican citizens. However, only about 3,000 Spanish-Mexicans lived in the Territory. Let's suppose that number is low and I allow you to nearly double the number to 5,000 Spanish-Mexican citizens. Even if there were many more undocumented "illegal" American immigrants, the fact remains that 5 of every 6 (25,000 of 30,000) Mexican citizens in Texas were formerly Americans. Say what you will about the vast amount of illegal immigration to these current United States of America from Central America, but there is not a single state where 5 out of 6 American citizens are legalized Mexican, Guatamalan, Costa Rican, or any other combination. Many are strictly illegal, so once again, your argument doesn't hold water in comparing 1830's Texas to the 2010's Southern US in terms of immigration.

Whether you agree with it or not, succeeding is considered treason by every gov't on Earth.

Incorrect. Succeeding is considered admirable in nearly every country on earth. Example, you are trying to win these arguments, but I am succeeding.

Sorry, anyways, seceding? Yes, treasonous. Your point?

So if the Mexicans had jailed Texans for suspicion of treason, they wouldn't be doing horrible things, but, in your own words, they'd be doing something "a little different".


In comparison to death camps, yes, temporary incarceration is "a little different." If you didn't catch my sarcasm the first time, that line was meant to express that the two are entirely different. And since we are a little off-point, the reason I brought this up is because you defended the integrity of Nazi-era Germans OVER the integrity of 1830's Texans with this amazingly dimwitted rebutt:

"The difference between Germans during WWII and Texans during the 1800s is that the most Germans did not know about the atrocities their leaders were doing."


To rehash, I proceeded to disprove your statement. But you refused my arguments and said.

I never said the Germans should be absolved. I said the Germans did not see the atrocities taking place. Texans, on the other hand, saw it every day. That is where the Germans and Texans differ.


Since you refuse to do a little research on the topic, I will indulge you and give you the information directly.

Here is a book for you to read:
http://www.amazon.com/What-We-Knew-Everyday-Germany/dp/0465085725
Here is a summary:
http://www.timeshighereducation.co.uk/story.asp?storycode=203103
Here is a list of pre-war Anti-Jewish laws:
http://www.ushmm.org/wlc/en/article.php?ModuleId=10007459
Here is a chapter from Hitler's Mein Kampf:
http://ess.uwe.ac.uk/intranet/meinkmpf.htm
Here is a list of statements and speeches given by Hitler and other top-ranking officials:
http://ess.uwe.ac.uk/genocide/statements.htm
Here are a few snippets from Hitler speeches and other top-ranking Nazi's for you to consider:

Hitler's Speech to the Reichstag, 30 January, 1939:
"Europe cannot find peace until the Jewish question has been solved. … if the international Jewish financiers in and outside Europe should succeed in plunging the nations once more into a world war, then the result will not be the Bolshivization of the earth, and thus the victory of Jewry, but the annihilation of the Jewish race in Europe."

Hitler's Speech in Wilhelmshaven, 1 April, 1939
"Only when this Jewish bacillus infecting the life of peoples has been removed can one hope to establish a co-operation amongst the nations which shall be built up on a lasting understanding." quoted in N H Baynes, The Speeches of Adolf Hitler, Oxford University Press, 1942, Volume I, pp.743)

Heinrich Himmler, 25 November 1939
"We won’t waste much time on the Jews. It’s great to get to grips with the Jewish race at last. The more they die the better… We want to put half to three-quarters of all Jews east of the Vistula. We will crush these Jews wherever we can. … Get the Jews out of the Reich… We have no use for Jews in the Reich. Probably the line of the Vistula, behind this line no more. We are the most important people here…" (Source: J Noakes, G Pridham. Nazism, 1919-1945: A Documentary Reader. Volume 3. p.1055. University of Exeter Press, 1991)

Himmler Memorandum, 23 March 1941
"I hope to see the very concept of Jewry completely obliterated."

Hitler’s Table Talk, October 1941
"From the rostrum of the Reichstag, I prophesied to Jewry that, in the event of war’s proving inevitable, the Jew would disappear from Europe. That race of criminals has on its conscience the two million dead of the First World War, and now already hundreds and thousands more. Let nobody tell me that all the same we can’t park them in the marshy parts of Russia! Who’s worrying about our troops? It’s not a bad idea, by the way, that public rumor attributes to us a plan to exterminate the Jews. Terror is a salutary thing." (quoted in John Toland, Adolf Hitler. London: Book Club Associates, 1977, p.702-3)

Speech By Adolf Hitler, Berlin, September 30, 1942
"There was a time when the Jews in Germany also laughed at my prophecies. I do not know whether they are still laughing today, or whether they have been cured of laughter. But take my word for it: they will stop laughing everywhere." (quoted in A J Mayer, Why Did the Heavens Not Darken: The "Final Solution" in History. London: Verso, 1990, p. 344)

Also, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Responsibility_for_the_Holocaust#Who_knew_about_the_killings.3F

Since the early years of the war, the Polish government-in-exile published documents and organised meetings to spread word of the fate of the Jews (see Witold Pilecki). In an entry in the Friedrich Kellner diary, "My Opposition", dated October 28, 1941, the German justice inspector recorded a conversation he had in Laubach with a German soldier who had witnessed a massacre in Poland. Other entries in his diary clearly show the people of Germany were aware from the beginning of the atrocities. Churchill, who was privy to intelligence reports derived from decoded German transmissions, first began mentioning "mass killings" in public at the same time. In the summer of 1942, a Jewish labor organization (the Bund) got word to London that 700,000 Polish Jews had already died...
On December 17, 1942 the Allies issued a formal declaration confirming and condemning Nazi extermination policy toward the Jews...

On May 12, 1943, Polish government-in-exile member and Bund leader Szmul Zygielbojm committed suicide in London to protest the inaction of the world with regard to the Holocaust, stating in part in his suicide letter:

"I cannot continue to live and to be silent while the remnants of Polish Jewry, whose representative I am, are being killed. My comrades in the Warsaw ghetto fell with arms in their hands in the last heroic battle. I was not permitted to fall like them, together with them, but I belong with them, to their mass grave. By my death, I wish to give expression to my most profound protest against the inaction in which the world watches and permits the destruction of the Jewish people." ...

Recent historical work suggests that the majority of Germans knew that Jews were being indiscriminately killed and persecuted but they did not know about the Final Solution and the specifics of the death camps. Robert Gellately, a historian at Oxford University, conducted a widely respected survey of the German media before and during the war, concluding that there was "substantial consent and active participation of large numbers of ordinary Germans" in aspects of the Holocaust, and documenting that the sight of columns of slave laborers were common, and that the basics of the concentration camps, if not the extermination camps, were widely known. The German scholar, Peter Longerich, in a study looking at what Germans knew about the mass murders concluded that: "General information concerning the mass murder of Jews was widespread in the German population."


Also, http://phdast7.hubpages.com/hub/Waht-Did-Most-Germans-Know-About-the-Nazi-Concentration-Camp-System-Part-II

Or:

In their oral history testimonies, letters, questionnaires, interviews, and journals American soldiers explain why they did not accept German protestations of ignorance and innocence. GIs from the 42nd, 45th, 71st, 88th, and 103rd Infantry Divisions, and the 11th Armored Division, and the 69th Signal Battalion all referred to the incredible odor emanating from the camps, claiming that they could smell the stench long before they could actually see the facilities.[1]

Private Margol estimated that camp odors could be detected up to two miles away; he considered the stench far worse than any smell of battlefield dead.[2] Dr. Charles Froug serving with an evacuation hospital, discounted the claim by citizens of Rosenheim that the odor came from a nearby fertilizer factory.

Thomas Hale wrote, “disease – typhus, dysentery, and tuberculosis – was universal. The crematory had been operating around the clock….the stench of death and of piles of human excrement was overpowering, yet the townspeople nearby said they knew nothing of the camp.[3]

Staff Sergeant Malachowsky, at Nordhausen with the 329th Medical Battalion, recalled that “the smell covered the entire countryside…for miles around….when we asked these people in the town…how they could permit such a thing, they said they did not know there was a camp like that next to them.”[4]

Frequently GIs mention the proximity of camps to villages, towns, and cities and emphasize that people living nearby would have known something about the camps.[5] PFC Dalton, with the 89th Infantry Division was quite emphatic. “I do not believe anyone could live that close to such a place and not know what was going on.”[6]

Corporal Hansen recorded the following, “On the edge of each industrial village, we saw the concentration camp, the huddle of ugly wooden barracks type building, surrounded with high barbed wire fence, littered with garbage, cold and repelling, sheltering the innumerable kinds of people that lived there and worked for the Germans.”[7]

Irving Lisman, who was at Dachau with the 122nd Medical Battalion, pointed out that the German countryside contained hundreds of subcamps, or aussenkommandos, in addition to the mother camps whose names we know, Buchenwald, Dachau. Bergen-Belsen. He found it impossible to believe German civilians when they denied knowledge of camps or of slave labor activity in their vicinity.[8]

Captain Sol Nichtern wrote, “The concentration Camp at Dachau is built right up against the side of the village; the houses go right up to the outer wall…And the German people who lived on the other side of the street claim that they didn’t know what was going on in the [very] next street”.[9]

Slave laborers were often marched through the village and town streets to their work sites and then back again to the concentration camps where they were housed for the night.[10] As part of a military intelligence team, Staff Sergeant Lenger questioned people living near the concentration camp Ohrdruf. Lenger recalled, “We questioned the people …and they told us they had no idea whatsoever that there was a camp of this sort, despite the fact that when the people from the camp went to work on this castle [nearby]…they had to pass the outskirts of this little town.”[11]

Lieutenant James confirmed this situation as he had several encounters with the Baron of the estate where the camp prisoners were marched to work.[12] Private Eppley spoke with inmates who marched through town twice a day to work in a paint factory outside of their camp.[13]

In some regions townspeople owned businesses which had part of their operations located inside a camp to take advantage of cheap slave labor.[14] Near Buchenwald trucks picked up villagers to do shift work inside the camp itself.[15]

At the Neuengamme camp “labor squads worked throughout the area, in particular on the canal running through town.” The walk to the canal took over an hour and the trip was made twice a day in full view of the local inhabitants.[16] Captain Baker remembered that “the civilian population seemed to claim not to know anything about what was going on at [Ohrdruf], yet it was only a quarter or a half a mile away from civilian populations. They could see it.”[17]

American soldiers also observed the railroad tracks which brought trainloads of prisoners to the camps, many of them running straight through or along the outskirts of German towns and villages.[18] In places where the trains went through the town, anyone looking out of a second story window could see the boxcars passing as they headed into a nearby camp.[19]

Captain Hellerstein, a physician attached to the 40th Tank Battalion, surveyed the camp at Bergen-Belsen. He wrote, “the land is flat…over there you could see the little town called Bergen, and it was impossible for the people in the town not to know what was going on. Because these boxcars used to come in, loaded [with people], and [then] leave empty.”[20]

Tech Sergeant Kushlis who was at Ohrdruf commented on the visibility of the train operations. “If you can just picture a tiny village with railroad cars coming in every other day with [thousands] of prisoners aboard [who were] unloaded and marched into the camp and they never saw anyone leave there.”[21]

Also at Ohrdruf Lieutenant Moore wrote, “The camp was located in a town, in easy view of the citizens…at the end of the compound, I saw two sheds, with stinking naked bodies that were piled about six foot high.”[22]

Konnilyn Feig, a Holocaust historian, verifies that similar situations were common in many towns. “During the war the residents had numerous opportunities to observe Neuengamme’s 10,000 inmates. The trains unloaded their cargo at the station in the center of town. The cargo walked through the center of town to the camp, an hour’s march.


And, http://www.historyplace.com/pointsofview/goldhagen.htm
And, http://www.globalsecurity.org/military/world/war/ww2/holocaust-knowledge.htm

Okay, that is enough, at least for now. On to the next issue.

On our discussion of the Texans wanting a free society which they felt was threatened by Santa Anna's military dictatorship.

Their ultimate goal was a free society? Then why did they keep slavery and segregation?


This is a simple answer. In any free society, rights that need to be fought for, will be, and, if given enough time, eventually all rights will be provided. Just as gay rights aren't entirely allowed in the United States, the slow progression of time will allow for such rights to be allowed if the people deem it to be an acceptable right. Just as women weren't allowed to vote until 1920, or slaves freed until 1865, or the Civil Rights Act of 1965. A free society does not enable anarchy in which anything and everything is allowed, but instead it allows all views to be open and not infringed upon. Example: slavery was legal, but people had the right to oppose slavery. Whereas in a tyrannical government that is not a free society, rights that were deemed allowed by law, are then taken away by a dictator or ruling body, but not changed by the will of the people. Santa Anna declaring himself dictator (not elected dictator) and then obolishing the rights provided by the Mexican constitution turned the Mexican government from a free society to a tyrannical society ruled by the opinions of one man rather than the opinions of the electorate.

reply

(continued)

This is another thing where we keep butting heads: you keep equating Nazis with Germans. Not all Germans were Nazis. And not all Nazis were Germans. Hitler was an Austrian, in fact.


You are correct that not all Germans were Nazi's and vice versa. However, the fact remains that the German populace faciliated and supported their rise to power. Perhaps they didn't forsee the Reichstag Acts or envision the tyranny, but the populace did allow the rise of the Nazi party.

You also make naive comments like this, "And the Germans, for all of their "Jew-hating" philosophy, were swept up by a leadership that was pulling them out of the worst depression in history and back to the top of the world economic, political and militarial summits. Groupthought had stirred them, and success (even by immoral means) will often override the negative components of a people."

Despite the fact that Hitler came to power "democratically", there were a ton of people who opposed him before and during his dictatorship. Not just Jews, but also union organizers, socialists, homosexuals, Roma, anarchists, monarchists, etc. The Nazis used extreme violence and intimidation to gain and hold power over the German population. Your quote makes it seem as if the vast majority of Germans were in favor of nazism. How can a guy who claims to read a lot about the Holocaust make such ill-informed statements?


Of course there were a ton of people who opposed Hitler & the Nazi's, but a large portion supported him. It is fair to say a country is "swept up" by a political movement without having full support. Example, Barack Obama and the Democratic Party "swept the elections of 2008" but only won 52% of the vote.

Also,

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazi_Party

Or,

the Nazi Party might never have come to power had it not been for the Great Depression and its effects on Germany. By 1930 the German economy was beset with mass unemployment and widespread business failures. The SPD and KPD parties were bitterly divided and unable to formulate an effective solution: this gave the Nazis their opportunity, and Hitler's message, blaming the crisis on the Jewish financiers and the Bolsheviks, resonated with wide sections of the electorate. At the September 1930 Reichstag elections the Nazis won 18.3% of the vote, and became the second-largest party in the Reichstag after the SPD. Hitler proved to be a highly effective campaigner, pioneering the use of radio and aircraft for this purpose. His dismissal of Strasser and appointment of Goebbels as the party's propaganda chief was a major factor. While Strasser had used his position to promote his own leftish version of national socialism, Goebbels was totally loyal to Hitler, and worked only to burnish Hitler's image.

The 1930 elections changed the German political landscape by weakening the traditional nationalist parties, the DNVP and the DVP, leaving the Nazis as the chief alternative to the discredited SPD and the Zentrum, whose leader, Heinrich Brüning, headed a weak minority government. The inability of the democratic parties to form a united front, the self-imposed isolation of the KPD, and the continued decline of the economy, all played into Hitler's hands. He now came to be seen as de facto leader of the opposition, and donations poured into the Nazi Party's coffers. Some major business figures such as Fritz Thyssen were Nazi supporters and gave generously,[54] and some Wall Street figures were allegedly involved,[55] but many other businessmen were suspicious of the extreme nationalist tendencies of the Nazis, and preferred to support the traditional conservative parties instead.[56]

During 1931 and into 1932, Germany's political crisis deepened. In March 1932 Hitler ran for President against the incumbent President Paul von Hindenburg, polling 30.1% in the first round and 36.8% in the second against Hindenburg's 49 and 53%. By now the SA had 400,000 members, and its running street battles with the SPD and KPD paramilitaries (who also fought each other) reduced some German cities to combat zones. Paradoxically, although the Nazis were among the main instigators of this disorder, part of Hitler's appeal to a frightened and demoralised middle class was his promise to restore law and order. Overt antisemitism was played down in official Nazi rhetoric, but was never far from the surface. Germans voted for Hitler primarily because of his promises to revive the economy (by unspecified means), to restore German greatness and overturn the Treaty of Versailles, and to save Germany from communism.

On 20 July 1932, the Prussian government was ousted by a coup—the Preussenschlag, and a few days later at the July 1932 Reichstag election the Nazis made another leap forward, polling 37.4% and becoming the largest party in the Reichstag by a wide margin. Furthermore, the Nazis and the KPD between them won 52% of the vote and a majority of seats. Since both parties opposed the established political system, and neither would join or support any ministry, this made the formation of a majority government impossible. The result was weak ministries governing by decree. Under Comintern directives, the KPD maintained its policy of treating the SPD as the main enemy, calling them "social fascists", thereby splintering opposition to the Nazis.[57] Later, both the SPD and the KPD accused each other of having facilitated Hitler's rise to power by their unwillingness to compromise.

Chancellor Franz von Papen called another Reichstag election in November, hoping to find a way out of this impasse. The electoral result was the same, with the Nazis and the KPD winning 50% of the vote between them and more than half the seats, rendering this Reichstag no more workable than its predecessor. But support for the Nazis had fallen to 33.1%, suggesting that the Nazi surge had passed its peak – possibly because the worst of the Depression had passed, possibly because some middle-class voters had supported Hitler in July as a protest, but had now drawn back from the prospect of actually putting him into power. The Nazis interpreted the result as a warning that they must seize power before their moment passed. Had the other parties united, this could have been prevented, but their shortsightedness made a united front impossible. Papen, his successor Kurt von Schleicher, and the nationalist press magnate Alfred Hugenberg spent December and January in political intrigues that eventually persuaded President Hindenburg it was safe to appoint Hitler Reich Chancellor at the head of a cabinet including only a minority of Nazi ministers—which he did on 30 January 1933.



Here are the Nazi Party percentages by years:
May 1928: 2.6%
September 1930: 18.3% (After financial crisis)
July 1932: 37%
March 1933: 43.9%

Still lots of opposition, but 44% is by no means a small number and as I demonstrated those numbers were increased because of the dire economic & political enviroment of the time. The reason I don't cite the opposition is probably the same reason you don't cite the abolitionist Texans: their ways did not win out. But, really, what difference does it make? Every political party since the dawn of time has had opposition, I hardly understand how my failure to address opposition is an indictment on my knowledge of WWII Germany or history in general. At this point you seem to be grasping at straws.

Next topic:

I used a scenario in which a hypothetical future existed where everyone believed vegetarianism was morally correct. I used this as an example showing why people in the past especially in pro-slavery areas believed slavery would always exist because it had seemingly been around forever. My example was not to say that opposition to slavery did not exist, merely that in some areas pro-slavery sentiment was much higher than anti-slavery sentiment. Just as there are vegetarians today, there were certainly abolitionists then, however, public sentiment was still mixed.
People in the 1800s had the same moral beliefs regarding slavery as people do today: people back then believed it was a humiliating and violent institution.

Did some believe that? Yes. Did all? Certainly not. Again, as a hypothetical example, Do vegetarians exist today? Yes. Is everyone a vegetarian? No.
If someday people deem meat-eaters as immoral should our ancesters say you were an immoral foodist and dismiss all of your deeds? I hope not.

I learned that this world is rull of people who will go to great lengths to apologize for violent racists and whitewash their past.

I am not apologizing for their past, I am merely acknowledging that one can still see the good that is done in a previous, less-moral society. That's why I said, "If all we learn from the Alamo is that people from the south in the 1830's were racist, then we have missed a great deal of history and we will surely be doomed to repeat it again." The reason I state this is because you claim people like me "whitewash [the] past" while I see people like you who merely condemn the past without acknowledging their positive atributes. If some society comes along and decides to rid the positives accomplished by those who condoned slavery in a previous era, than lessons learned from Plato, Aristotle, Alexander the Great, Thomas Jefferson, etc. would be lost. I fully understand that slavery and racism were a part of the past, but I am also open enough to see the positives that existed in those times as well.

reply


mjlangenbru, I asked you to give me facts supporting your assertion that the majority of Texans during the uprising were citizens. You still have not done so.

tyr·an·ny [tir-uh-nee] Show IPA

noun, plural tyr·an·nies.
1. arbitrary or unrestrained exercise of power; despotic abuse of authority.

2. the government or rule of a tyrant or absolute ruler.

3. a state ruled by a tyrant or absolute ruler.

4. oppressive or unjustly severe government on the part of any ruler.

So, tyranny in the sense that Santa Anna threw out the constitution and declared himself dictator. Example, the Roman Republic as a whole was immoral for its use of slavery, but Caligula was tyrannical. Get it? You are going to have a hard time convincing many people that Thomas Jefferson was a tyrant because he owned slaves. If you believe this, then agree to disagree.

So you sat the Roman Republic was immoral for its use of slavery. Then, by your argument, the Texas Revolution should be considered an immoral rebellion because it was an uprising based on keeping slavery as an institution. Glad we finally agree on something.

It's also ironic for you to use Thomas Jefferson as an example to prove your point. Thomas Jefferson actually wanted to abolish the institution of slavery and remained morally conflicted over it. By contrast, I can't find any evidence that anyone involved with the Texas Rebellion wanted to get rid of slavery and were morally torn over it. I believe Jefferson was a tyrant. I don't care if I have a hard time convincing many people. I could have a hard time convincing many people that polar bears live in the arctic. But that won't change the facts, will it?

Here is where there is trouble. Based on the numbers I cited above, from the early 1820's to the mid 1830's some 25,000 Americans moved to Texas and became Mexican citizens. However, only about 3,000 Spanish-Mexicans lived in the Territory. Let's suppose that number is low and I allow you to nearly double the number to 5,000 Spanish-Mexican citizens. Even if there were many more undocumented "illegal" American immigrants, the fact remains that 5 of every 6 (25,000 of 30,000) Mexican citizens in Texas were formerly Americans. Say what you will about the vast amount of illegal immigration to these current United States of America from Central America, but there is not a single state where 5 out of 6 American citizens are legalized Mexican, Guatamalan, Costa Rican, or any other combination. Many are strictly illegal, so once again, your argument doesn't hold water in comparing 1830's Texas to the 2010's Southern US in terms of immigration.

You're speculating that 5 out of 6 Texans were legal Mexican citizens. How am I supposed to debate your speculation?

Incorrect. Succeeding is considered admirable in nearly every country on earth. Example, you are trying to win these arguments, but I am succeeding.

Sorry, anyways, seceding? Yes, treasonous. Your point?


So I misspelled the word. You know what I meant. My point: the Texas Rebellion was a treasonous event against a legally recognized government. From generation to generation it has been labelled as heroic when, in fact, it was anything but heroic. I always find it interesting how these "freedom-loving, heroic Texans" didn't care about Mexico enough to try to force the government to install a much more democratic gov't. At the end of the rebellion, the Texans had Santa Anna prisoner. The could have found a way to use the president/dictator as hostage to help install a democratic gov't for all Mexicans. Instead, they let him go, knowing he would likely go back to being a tyrant of Mexico after he signed a document agreeing to let Texas secede.

It's as if they said, "Okay. Now that you've allowed us Texans our freedom, you can go back to Mexico and be a tyrant. We don't care. As long as we get what we want, the rest of Mexico can go screw itself." How can freedom-loving Texans let a the tyrant go back to Mexico? Perhaps, the agreed with Santa Anna that Mexicans deserved despotism. And perhaps they were also too busy installing segregation upon Mexicans and slavery on blacks.

By the way, the What We Knew book is at my local library. I'm a bibliophile who doesn't mind spending an evening or two reading a book. I'll probably be spending the next two evenings reading that book to see if what you say about Germans knowing the atrocities of holocaust is true.

By the way, those quotes from Hitler's speeches in no way prove that the Germans knew about the atrocities. There have been many similarly ugly speeches made by prominent men in the United States against blacks, Native Americans, Italians, latinos, Asians, etc.

This is a simple answer. In any free society, rights that need to be fought for, will be, and, if given enough time, eventually all rights will be provided. Just as gay rights aren't entirely allowed in the United States, the slow progression of time will allow for such rights to be allowed if the people deem it to be an acceptable right. Just as women weren't allowed to vote until 1920, or slaves freed until 1865, or the Civil Rights Act of 1965. A free society does not enable anarchy in which anything and everything is allowed, but instead it allows all views to be open and not infringed upon. Example: slavery was legal, but people had the right to oppose slavery. Whereas in a tyrannical government that is not a free society, rights that were deemed allowed by law, are then taken away by a dictator or ruling body, but not changed by the will of the people. Santa Anna declaring himself dictator (not elected dictator) and then obolishing the rights provided by the Mexican constitution turned the Mexican government from a free society to a tyrannical society ruled by the opinions of one man rather than the opinions of the electorate.

But, ironically, the Texans were fighting against the rights of blacks (and also Mexicans because they enforced segregation). It's interesting that you should bring up gay rights to prove your point. Last time I checked, gays weren't enslaved. Nor were they segregated. It's ironic how the Texans had a problem with Santa Anna openly violating the Mexican Constitution; however, they never has a problem when they openly violated the same constitution by continuing slavery (and by squatting on the land without legal right). Isn't it funny how hypocrisy works.


Still lots of opposition, but 44% is by no means a small number and as I demonstrated those numbers were increased because of the dire economic & political enviroment of the time. The reason I don't cite the opposition is probably the same reason you don't cite the abolitionist Texans: their ways did not win out. But, really, what difference does it make? Every political party since the dawn of time has had opposition, I hardly understand how my failure to address opposition is an indictment on my knowledge of WWII Germany or history in general. At this point you seem to be grasping at straws.

You keep trying to make it seem as if the Nazis came to power with the adoring blessing of the majority of the German voting population. That's a naive viewpoint. In my original statement, I pointed out the extremely violence the Nazis used in order to gain power. The italicized quotes you posted pointed this out too. Violence played a huge, huge hand in letting the Nazis gain power. Without violence, the Nazis would not have gained 1% of the power they did. I'm even willing to state that without violence the Nazis wouldn't have gained power at all. Anyone who tries to say that violence wasn't the driving force that propelled the Nazis to power obviously is either trying to whitewash history or doesn't know anything about Post WWI Germany at all.

That's basically what I am saying: the Nazis got into power through violence and stayed in power with even more violence. You're trying to downplay the violence and make it seem as if they violence did not have a huge hand in the Nazi takeover of power. That is what I wholeheartedly disagree with.

My quote, "People in the 1800s had the same moral beliefs regarding slavery as people do today: people back then believed it was a humiliating and violent institution. "

Your quote, "Did some believe that? Yes. Did all? Certainly not."

I love how you picked apart my quote that emphasized my point. You cut out the part where I pointed out that many gov'ts had been trying to abolish slavery for thousands of years. While the Texans were fighting to keep slavery, Great Britain was enacting legislations to get rid of it. You also overlooked my statement, "Do you think if someone had enslaved the slave owners, the slave owners wouldn't believe it was a violent and humiliating thing?"

I am not apologizing for their past, I am merely acknowledging that one can still see the good that is done in a previous, less-moral society. That's why I said, "If all we learn from the Alamo is that people from the south in the 1830's were racist, then we have missed a great deal of history and we will surely be doomed to repeat it again." The reason I state this is because you claim people like me "whitewash [the] past" while I see people like you who merely condemn the past without acknowledging their positive atributes. If some society comes along and decides to rid the positives accomplished by those who condoned slavery in a previous era, than lessons learned from Plato, Aristotle, Alexander the Great, Thomas Jefferson, etc. would be lost. I fully understand that slavery and racism were a part of the past, but I am also open enough to see the positives that existed in those times as well.

And here's where you keep messing up what I am saying: you cannot be a freedom fighter and fight for the institution of segregation and slavery at the same time. It is a extreme contradiction. You are the one here who appears to be missing a great deal of history and is doomed to repeat it.



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The assertion on this thread that the Texas fight for independence was to support slavery is unfounded. Remember that of the 180 plus men who gave up their lives in that battle, only two are known to actually have owned any slaves...Bowie and Travis. Now when you think about it, why would the other 180 be so willing to die so that someone else could own slaves? And the small percentage of southerners who actually owned slaves is fact because it was almost all rich, wealthy land owners who had enough money to own slaves. I have researched my ancestors, all southerners, and not one owned a slave. They were farmers but could not afford slaves.

The Texas fight was to revolt against a dictator, Santa Ana, and to make Texas independent from Mexico. It was a fight not unlike America's own fight for independence some 60 years before the Alamo which also had nothing to do with slavery.

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