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why did the germans/austrians dominate classical music??

posted 5 years ago by [deleted]
4 replies | jump to latest

anyone know??

[–] [deleted] 5 years ago

It was their last period of rationality before they went totally murderous.

[–] [deleted] 5 years ago

a country that produced some great stuff and not some great stuff.

[–] [deleted] 5 years ago

Yes. The "great stuff" entertained people, but the "not great" stuff butchered them.

If they could just find a way to entertain and enlighten the world's people, without declaring total war on them all afterwards, perhaps they would be welcomed back into human society.

(I'm reading a couple of books on WW1 at present, and the descriptions of German behaviour back then are very enlightening.)

[–] huwdj (4566) 5 years ago

I don't think they do - it seems to come in blocks. Sadly I broke this down once by the composers I recognised and crudely it seemed to go Italian/Germanic/Russian/British/American - I suppose I should acknowledge the Scandinavian and the French composers were mixed in there somewhere.
This is of course a very subjective take based on my personal tastes and vast ignorance.